EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP
EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL
EXAM COMPLETE 125 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+|BRAND NEW VERSION!!
Which nursing action would be appropriate for a client who is newly diagnosed
with Cushing syndrome?
A.Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
B.Increase intake of fluids high in potassium.
C.Encourage adequate rest between activities.
D.Offer the client a sodium-enriched menu.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing syndrome results from a hypersecretion of glucocorticoids in
the adrenal cortex. Clients with Cushing syndrome often develop diabetes mellitus.
Monitoring of serum glucose levels assesses for increased blood glucose levels so
that treatment can begin early. A common finding in Cushing syndrome is
generalized edema. Although potassium is needed, it is generally obtained from
food intake, not by offering potassium-enhanced fluids. Fatigue is usually not an
overwhelming factor in Cushing syndrome, so an emphasis on the need for rest is
not indicated. A low-calorie, low-carbohydrate, low-sodium diet is not
recommended.
During the change of shift report, the charge nurse reviews the infusions being
received by clients on the oncology unit. The client receiving which infusion
should be assessed first?
A.Continuous IV infusion of magnesium
B.One-time infusion of albumin
C.Continuous epidural infusion of morphine
D.Intermittent infusion of IV vancomycin
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, EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: All four of these clients have the potential to have significant
complications. The client with the morphine epidural infusion is at highest risk for
respiratory depression and should be assessed first. Option A can cause
hypotension. The client receiving option B is at lowest risk for serious
complications. Although option D can cause nephrotoxicity and phlebitis, these
problems are not as immediately life threatening as option C.
A client who received a nephrotoxic drug is admitted with acute renal failure and
asks the nurse if dialysis will always be needed. Which pathophysiologic
consequence should the nurse explain that supports the need for temporary
dialysis until acute tubular necrosis subsides?
.
A. Azotemia
B. Oliguria
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Nephron obstruction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:CKD is characterized by progressive and irreversible destruction of
nephrons, frequently caused by hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Nephrotoxins
cause acute tubular necrosis, a reversible acute renal failure, which creates renal
tubular obstruction from endothelial cells that are sloughed or become
edematous. The obstruction of urine flow will resolve with the return of an
adequate glomerular filtration rate, and when it does, dialysis will no longer be
needed. Options A, B, and C are manifestations seen in the acute and chronic
forms of kidney disease.
The client returns to the unit after abdominal surgery with a 5″ × 9″ absorbent
dressing in place to the mid abdomen. The nurse notes a spot of red staining
centrally on the dressing. What is the nurse's next action?
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, EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP
A. Note the size of the stain in the chart.
B. Circle the stain with an ink pen.
C. Remove the dressing to assess the source of the bleeding.
D. Place a pressure dressing on the existing dressing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:By circling the existing stain upon admission to the unit, the nurse can
then assess any increase, though subtle, in the amount of drainage over time. The
size of the stain will need to be noted in the chart, but it is not the first action. The
nurse removes the dressing under the prescription of the health care provider or in
an emergency. Neither of those conditions exist in the question. The dressing in
place is an absorbent dressing. There is no need for a further dressing until the
existing dressing becomes saturated.
While at a home game, the mother of a 6-year-old is heard screaming, "My child is
having an asthma attack! Can anyone help?" The nurse arrives and finds the child
gasping for breath with circumoral cyanosis. What are the nurse's next actions?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Yell, "Call 911."
B. Ask the mother if she has the child's bronchodilator.
C. Start cardiopulmonary respirations.
D. Ask the mother if the child is allergic to bee stings.
E. Stay with the child and mother until the ambulance arrives.
F. Sit the child straight up in Fowler's position.
Correct Answer: A,B,E,F
Rationale: CPR is not needed at this time as the child is still moving air. An allergy
to bee stings is related to anaphylactic shock, which is not the situation here. The
remaining actions are correct for asthma.
The nurse is providing care to a client after a percutaneous transluminal coronary
angioplasty (PTCA). What actions will the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
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, EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP
(Select all that apply.)
A. Frequent vital signs.
B. Determine if the client is allergic to aspirin.
C. Assist out of bed 2 hours after return from the procedure.
D. Offer fluids of choice.
E. Assess distal pulses on the side of the procedure.
F. Monitor infusion of IV nitroglycerine.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,F
Rationale: The client's incisional leg needs to stay straight for 6 to 8 hours to
decrease the risk of hemorrhage from the incision site. Pulses must be assessed
bilaterally for a point of comparison. The remaining actions are included in the
care plan for the client after a PTCA
A male client has just undergone a laryngectomy and has a cuffed tracheostomy
tube in place. When initiating bolus tube feedings postoperatively, when should
the nurse inflate the cuff?
.
A. Immediately after feeding
B. Just prior to tube feeding
C.Continuous inflation is required
D. Inflation is not required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:The cuff should be inflated before the feeding to block the trachea and
prevent food from entering if oral feedings are started while a cuffed
tracheostomy tube is in place. It should remain inflated throughout the feeding to
prevent aspiration of food into the respiratory system. Options A and D place the
client at risk for aspiration. Option C places the client at risk for tracheal wall
necrosis.
A practical nurse (PN) tells the charge nurse in a long-term facility that she does
not want to be assigned to one particular resident. She reports that the male
4|Page
EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL
EXAM COMPLETE 125 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+|BRAND NEW VERSION!!
Which nursing action would be appropriate for a client who is newly diagnosed
with Cushing syndrome?
A.Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
B.Increase intake of fluids high in potassium.
C.Encourage adequate rest between activities.
D.Offer the client a sodium-enriched menu.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cushing syndrome results from a hypersecretion of glucocorticoids in
the adrenal cortex. Clients with Cushing syndrome often develop diabetes mellitus.
Monitoring of serum glucose levels assesses for increased blood glucose levels so
that treatment can begin early. A common finding in Cushing syndrome is
generalized edema. Although potassium is needed, it is generally obtained from
food intake, not by offering potassium-enhanced fluids. Fatigue is usually not an
overwhelming factor in Cushing syndrome, so an emphasis on the need for rest is
not indicated. A low-calorie, low-carbohydrate, low-sodium diet is not
recommended.
During the change of shift report, the charge nurse reviews the infusions being
received by clients on the oncology unit. The client receiving which infusion
should be assessed first?
A.Continuous IV infusion of magnesium
B.One-time infusion of albumin
C.Continuous epidural infusion of morphine
D.Intermittent infusion of IV vancomycin
1|Page
, EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: All four of these clients have the potential to have significant
complications. The client with the morphine epidural infusion is at highest risk for
respiratory depression and should be assessed first. Option A can cause
hypotension. The client receiving option B is at lowest risk for serious
complications. Although option D can cause nephrotoxicity and phlebitis, these
problems are not as immediately life threatening as option C.
A client who received a nephrotoxic drug is admitted with acute renal failure and
asks the nurse if dialysis will always be needed. Which pathophysiologic
consequence should the nurse explain that supports the need for temporary
dialysis until acute tubular necrosis subsides?
.
A. Azotemia
B. Oliguria
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Nephron obstruction
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:CKD is characterized by progressive and irreversible destruction of
nephrons, frequently caused by hypertension and diabetes mellitus. Nephrotoxins
cause acute tubular necrosis, a reversible acute renal failure, which creates renal
tubular obstruction from endothelial cells that are sloughed or become
edematous. The obstruction of urine flow will resolve with the return of an
adequate glomerular filtration rate, and when it does, dialysis will no longer be
needed. Options A, B, and C are manifestations seen in the acute and chronic
forms of kidney disease.
The client returns to the unit after abdominal surgery with a 5″ × 9″ absorbent
dressing in place to the mid abdomen. The nurse notes a spot of red staining
centrally on the dressing. What is the nurse's next action?
2|Page
, EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP
A. Note the size of the stain in the chart.
B. Circle the stain with an ink pen.
C. Remove the dressing to assess the source of the bleeding.
D. Place a pressure dressing on the existing dressing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:By circling the existing stain upon admission to the unit, the nurse can
then assess any increase, though subtle, in the amount of drainage over time. The
size of the stain will need to be noted in the chart, but it is not the first action. The
nurse removes the dressing under the prescription of the health care provider or in
an emergency. Neither of those conditions exist in the question. The dressing in
place is an absorbent dressing. There is no need for a further dressing until the
existing dressing becomes saturated.
While at a home game, the mother of a 6-year-old is heard screaming, "My child is
having an asthma attack! Can anyone help?" The nurse arrives and finds the child
gasping for breath with circumoral cyanosis. What are the nurse's next actions?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Yell, "Call 911."
B. Ask the mother if she has the child's bronchodilator.
C. Start cardiopulmonary respirations.
D. Ask the mother if the child is allergic to bee stings.
E. Stay with the child and mother until the ambulance arrives.
F. Sit the child straight up in Fowler's position.
Correct Answer: A,B,E,F
Rationale: CPR is not needed at this time as the child is still moving air. An allergy
to bee stings is related to anaphylactic shock, which is not the situation here. The
remaining actions are correct for asthma.
The nurse is providing care to a client after a percutaneous transluminal coronary
angioplasty (PTCA). What actions will the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
3|Page
, EVOLVE HESI MED SURG EXAM PREP
(Select all that apply.)
A. Frequent vital signs.
B. Determine if the client is allergic to aspirin.
C. Assist out of bed 2 hours after return from the procedure.
D. Offer fluids of choice.
E. Assess distal pulses on the side of the procedure.
F. Monitor infusion of IV nitroglycerine.
Correct Answer: A,B,D,F
Rationale: The client's incisional leg needs to stay straight for 6 to 8 hours to
decrease the risk of hemorrhage from the incision site. Pulses must be assessed
bilaterally for a point of comparison. The remaining actions are included in the
care plan for the client after a PTCA
A male client has just undergone a laryngectomy and has a cuffed tracheostomy
tube in place. When initiating bolus tube feedings postoperatively, when should
the nurse inflate the cuff?
.
A. Immediately after feeding
B. Just prior to tube feeding
C.Continuous inflation is required
D. Inflation is not required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:The cuff should be inflated before the feeding to block the trachea and
prevent food from entering if oral feedings are started while a cuffed
tracheostomy tube is in place. It should remain inflated throughout the feeding to
prevent aspiration of food into the respiratory system. Options A and D place the
client at risk for aspiration. Option C places the client at risk for tracheal wall
necrosis.
A practical nurse (PN) tells the charge nurse in a long-term facility that she does
not want to be assigned to one particular resident. She reports that the male
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