AMCA CMAC EXAM Actual Exam Complete
Questions and Answers Detailed Rationales Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Clinical Patient Care & Procedures | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Infection Control & Safety | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pharmacology & Medication Administration | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Laboratory & Diagnostic Testing | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Professionalism, Communication & Medical Law | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: CLINICAL PATIENT CARE & PROCEDURES Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 68-year-old patient with a history of hypertension reports feeling dizzy when standing
up quickly from the exam table. The medical assistant obtains vital signs in supine and
standing positions and notes a drop in systolic pressure of 22 mmHg upon standing,
accompanied by a heart rate increase of 18 beats per minute.
A. Document the findings as normal age-related changes and advise the patient to rise
more slowly
B. Report the findings to the provider immediately as potential orthostatic hypotension
✓ CORRECT
C. Recheck the blood pressure manually using a larger cuff size
D. Instruct the patient to increase salt intake before the provider sees them
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A drop in systolic pressure of 20 mmHg or more with a compensatory heart
rate increase of 10 bpm or more meets the clinical criteria for orthostatic hypotension
,and requires provider notification. A larger cuff would not address the positional change
in readings, and advising salt intake or dismissing the findings as normal could delay
necessary intervention for a patient on antihypertensive therapy.
Question 2 of 50
During a routine wellness visit, a 54-year-old patient suddenly becomes pale,
diaphoretic, and complains of severe abdominal pain. The provider suspects internal
bleeding and asks the medical assistant to position the patient appropriately while
preparing for emergency transfer.
A. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position with the head lowered and legs elevated
✓ CORRECT
B. Elevate the head of the exam table to 45 degrees to ease breathing
C. Position the patient on the left side with knees drawn toward the chest
D. Have the patient sit upright with legs dangling off the table
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trendelenburg position promotes venous return to the heart and helps
maintain cerebral perfusion in a patient with suspected hypovolemic shock from
internal bleeding. Elevating the head or sitting upright could worsen hypotension by
allowing blood to pool in the lower extremities, and the left lateral position is used for
unconscious patients to prevent aspiration rather than for shock management.
Question 3 of 50
A 42-year-old patient presents with a partial-thickness burn on the forearm sustained
while cooking. The provider has debrided the wound and orders a wet-to-dry dressing
change twice daily. The medical assistant is preparing to demonstrate the initial
dressing application.
A. Apply the dry gauze layer directly onto the wound bed and secure with a loose wrap
,B. Soak the contact gauze in sterile saline, wring it out until damp, and place it on the
wound ✓ CORRECT
C. Pack the wound tightly with dry gauze strips to absorb maximum drainage
D. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing directly over the debrided tissue without moistening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A wet-to-dry dressing requires a damp saline-moistened gauze in contact
with the wound bed to prevent tissue adherence and allow gentle debridement during
removal. Dry gauze would adhere to granulating tissue and cause trauma upon removal,
while a hydrocolloid dressing is inappropriate for wounds requiring debridement and is
not part of a wet-to-dry protocol.
Question 4 of 50
A 35-year-old female patient is scheduled for a pelvic examination and Pap smear. The
medical assistant is responsible for preparing the exam room and positioning the
patient before the provider enters.
A. Position the patient in dorsal recumbent with knees flexed and feet flat on the table
B. Assist the patient into lithotomy position with feet in stirrups and drape across the
lap ✓ CORRECT
C. Place the patient in Sims position with the upper knee flexed and drawn upward
D. Have the patient lie prone with a pillow under the abdomen for comfort
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithotomy position provides optimal visualization of the perineum and cervix
for a pelvic exam and Pap smear collection. Dorsal recumbent does not allow adequate
exposure, Sims position is used for rectal exams, and prone positioning is completely
inappropriate for a pelvic examination.
Question 5 of 50
, A 7-year-old patient sustained a 2-centimeter laceration on the chin three days ago and
returns for a wound check. The provider placed five nonabsorbable sutures and asks the
medical assistant to schedule the removal appointment.
A. Schedule suture removal in 10 to 14 days to ensure complete wound strength
B. Remove the sutures today since facial wounds heal faster than extremity wounds
C. Schedule the patient for suture removal in 3 to 5 days ✓ CORRECT
D. Instruct the parent to remove the sutures at home with clean tweezers in one week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Facial sutures are typically removed in 3 to 5 days due to the excellent blood
supply in the head and neck region that promotes rapid healing. Waiting 10 to 14 days
risks suture track marks and infection, and sutures should never be removed at home by
a parent due to the risk of wound dehiscence and improper technique.
Question 6 of 50
A 58-year-old patient is having a 12-lead EKG performed in the clinic. The medical
assistant has placed the limb leads and is preparing to position the precordial leads on
the chest.
A. Place V1 at the fourth intercostal space right sternal border and V4 at the fifth
intercostal space midclavicular line ✓ CORRECT
B. Position V1 at the second intercostal space left sternal border and V6 at the anterior
axillary line
C. Apply V3 at the same horizontal level as V1 and V2 on the right side of the sternum
D. Place V4 at the third intercostal space and V6 at the midaxillary line at the level of the
xiphoid process
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Standard 12-lead EKG placement requires V1 at the fourth intercostal space
right of the sternum and V4 at the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line, with V2, V3,
V5, and V6 positioned accordingly. Placing V1 too high or on the left side, or positioning
Questions and Answers Detailed Rationales Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Clinical Patient Care & Procedures | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Infection Control & Safety | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pharmacology & Medication Administration | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Laboratory & Diagnostic Testing | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Professionalism, Communication & Medical Law | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: CLINICAL PATIENT CARE & PROCEDURES Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 68-year-old patient with a history of hypertension reports feeling dizzy when standing
up quickly from the exam table. The medical assistant obtains vital signs in supine and
standing positions and notes a drop in systolic pressure of 22 mmHg upon standing,
accompanied by a heart rate increase of 18 beats per minute.
A. Document the findings as normal age-related changes and advise the patient to rise
more slowly
B. Report the findings to the provider immediately as potential orthostatic hypotension
✓ CORRECT
C. Recheck the blood pressure manually using a larger cuff size
D. Instruct the patient to increase salt intake before the provider sees them
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A drop in systolic pressure of 20 mmHg or more with a compensatory heart
rate increase of 10 bpm or more meets the clinical criteria for orthostatic hypotension
,and requires provider notification. A larger cuff would not address the positional change
in readings, and advising salt intake or dismissing the findings as normal could delay
necessary intervention for a patient on antihypertensive therapy.
Question 2 of 50
During a routine wellness visit, a 54-year-old patient suddenly becomes pale,
diaphoretic, and complains of severe abdominal pain. The provider suspects internal
bleeding and asks the medical assistant to position the patient appropriately while
preparing for emergency transfer.
A. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position with the head lowered and legs elevated
✓ CORRECT
B. Elevate the head of the exam table to 45 degrees to ease breathing
C. Position the patient on the left side with knees drawn toward the chest
D. Have the patient sit upright with legs dangling off the table
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trendelenburg position promotes venous return to the heart and helps
maintain cerebral perfusion in a patient with suspected hypovolemic shock from
internal bleeding. Elevating the head or sitting upright could worsen hypotension by
allowing blood to pool in the lower extremities, and the left lateral position is used for
unconscious patients to prevent aspiration rather than for shock management.
Question 3 of 50
A 42-year-old patient presents with a partial-thickness burn on the forearm sustained
while cooking. The provider has debrided the wound and orders a wet-to-dry dressing
change twice daily. The medical assistant is preparing to demonstrate the initial
dressing application.
A. Apply the dry gauze layer directly onto the wound bed and secure with a loose wrap
,B. Soak the contact gauze in sterile saline, wring it out until damp, and place it on the
wound ✓ CORRECT
C. Pack the wound tightly with dry gauze strips to absorb maximum drainage
D. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing directly over the debrided tissue without moistening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A wet-to-dry dressing requires a damp saline-moistened gauze in contact
with the wound bed to prevent tissue adherence and allow gentle debridement during
removal. Dry gauze would adhere to granulating tissue and cause trauma upon removal,
while a hydrocolloid dressing is inappropriate for wounds requiring debridement and is
not part of a wet-to-dry protocol.
Question 4 of 50
A 35-year-old female patient is scheduled for a pelvic examination and Pap smear. The
medical assistant is responsible for preparing the exam room and positioning the
patient before the provider enters.
A. Position the patient in dorsal recumbent with knees flexed and feet flat on the table
B. Assist the patient into lithotomy position with feet in stirrups and drape across the
lap ✓ CORRECT
C. Place the patient in Sims position with the upper knee flexed and drawn upward
D. Have the patient lie prone with a pillow under the abdomen for comfort
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithotomy position provides optimal visualization of the perineum and cervix
for a pelvic exam and Pap smear collection. Dorsal recumbent does not allow adequate
exposure, Sims position is used for rectal exams, and prone positioning is completely
inappropriate for a pelvic examination.
Question 5 of 50
, A 7-year-old patient sustained a 2-centimeter laceration on the chin three days ago and
returns for a wound check. The provider placed five nonabsorbable sutures and asks the
medical assistant to schedule the removal appointment.
A. Schedule suture removal in 10 to 14 days to ensure complete wound strength
B. Remove the sutures today since facial wounds heal faster than extremity wounds
C. Schedule the patient for suture removal in 3 to 5 days ✓ CORRECT
D. Instruct the parent to remove the sutures at home with clean tweezers in one week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Facial sutures are typically removed in 3 to 5 days due to the excellent blood
supply in the head and neck region that promotes rapid healing. Waiting 10 to 14 days
risks suture track marks and infection, and sutures should never be removed at home by
a parent due to the risk of wound dehiscence and improper technique.
Question 6 of 50
A 58-year-old patient is having a 12-lead EKG performed in the clinic. The medical
assistant has placed the limb leads and is preparing to position the precordial leads on
the chest.
A. Place V1 at the fourth intercostal space right sternal border and V4 at the fifth
intercostal space midclavicular line ✓ CORRECT
B. Position V1 at the second intercostal space left sternal border and V6 at the anterior
axillary line
C. Apply V3 at the same horizontal level as V1 and V2 on the right side of the sternum
D. Place V4 at the third intercostal space and V6 at the midaxillary line at the level of the
xiphoid process
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Standard 12-lead EKG placement requires V1 at the fourth intercostal space
right of the sternum and V4 at the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line, with V2, V3,
V5, and V6 positioned accordingly. Placing V1 too high or on the left side, or positioning
