PN ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM 2026 |
180 QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE PN
RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE & SAFETY (Questions 1-45)
Question 1
A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose of 55 mg/dL and is
diaphoretic
B. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema and crackles in the lung
bases
C. A client post-operative day 1 who reports pain of 6/10
D. A client with a history of seizures who is watching television
Answer: A
*Rationale: Hypoglycemia (55 mg/dL) with diaphoresis is an acute, life-
threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. The brain requires
glucose for function; without rapid treatment (oral or IV dextrose), the client
could lose consciousness or suffer brain damage. The ABC/safety framework
prioritizes threats to cerebral function and hemodynamic stability over stable
findings like edema, pain, or a seizure history. *
Question 2
When assigning tasks to assistive personnel (AP), which action demonstrates
appropriate delegation?
,A. Asking the AP to assess a client's pain level using a 0-10 scale
B. Instructing the AP to reinforce teaching about insulin administration
C. Directing the AP to measure a client's vital signs on a stable postoperative
client
D. Delegating the AP to administer a tube feeding to a client with a PEG tube
Answer: C
Rationale: APs can perform routine, non-invasive tasks such as obtaining vital
signs on stable clients. Assessment of pain (A) requires nursing judgment to
interpret findings and intervene. Teaching (B) requires licensed nursing knowledge
to evaluate understanding and reinforce education. Tube feedings (D) require
verification of placement, residual checks, and assessment of tolerance—tasks
beyond AP scope.
Question 3
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse perform suctioning for a client
who has a tracheostomy. For which of the following actions should the charge
nurse intervene?
A. Pre-oxygenates the client before suctioning
B. Suctions for 30 seconds
C. Uses sterile technique
D. Suctions on withdrawal
Answer: B
*Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxia.
Prolonged suctioning (30 seconds) can cause hypoxemia, bradycardia, and cardiac
arrest. Pre-oxygenation (A) is correct practice. Sterile technique (C) prevents
infection. Suctioning on withdrawal (D) rather than during insertion minimizes
mucosal trauma. *
,Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative day 1 following abdominal
surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider immediately?
A. Heart rate 88/min
B. Respiratory rate 28/min
C. Temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F)
D. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
Answer: B
*Rationale: Tachypnea (RR >20) post-abdominal surgery may indicate atelectasis,
pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, or pain. This requires immediate assessment
and intervention. The other vital signs are within normal limits. *
Question 5
A nurse is witnessing a client sign an informed consent. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Ensure the provider has explained risks, benefits, and alternatives
B. Explain the procedure to the client in detail
C. Sign the consent form as a witness to the client's signature only
D. Witness that the client was coerced into signing
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the client's signature
and verify that the client is signing voluntarily and appears to understand what
they are signing. The provider is legally responsible for explaining the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives (A). The nurse should not explain the procedure in
detail (B) as that is the provider's role. The nurse should verify lack of coercion, not
witness coercion (D).
, Question 6
A nurse is planning to obtain a 12-lead ECG for a client who has a history of
cardiac dysrhythmias. Which action should the nurse plan to take?
A. Instruct the client to remain as still as possible during the recording
B. Apply the electrodes to the client's bony prominences
C. Have the client hold their breath during the recording
D. Place the client in a supine position with legs elevated
Answer: A
Rationale: Movement during ECG recording can cause artifact and interfere with
interpretation. Electrodes should be placed on flat, fleshy areas (not bony
prominences, B). The client should breathe normally (not hold breath, C). Leg
elevation (D) is not required.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has a DNR order and is experiencing respiratory
distress. The family asks the nurse to "do everything possible." Which action
should the nurse take?
A. Initiate CPR and call a code blue
B. Call a code but do not begin compressions
C. Provide comfort measures and support the family
D. Ask the family if they want the DNR honored
Answer: C
Rationale: A valid DNR order must be honored. The nurse's role shifts to providing
comfort, dignity, and family support. CPR is specifically not indicated. The DNR
order is legally binding; the family cannot override it in the moment, though they
can request a provider review.
Question 8
180 QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | COMPLETE PN
RATIONALES & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE & SAFETY (Questions 1-45)
Question 1
A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose of 55 mg/dL and is
diaphoretic
B. A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema and crackles in the lung
bases
C. A client post-operative day 1 who reports pain of 6/10
D. A client with a history of seizures who is watching television
Answer: A
*Rationale: Hypoglycemia (55 mg/dL) with diaphoresis is an acute, life-
threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. The brain requires
glucose for function; without rapid treatment (oral or IV dextrose), the client
could lose consciousness or suffer brain damage. The ABC/safety framework
prioritizes threats to cerebral function and hemodynamic stability over stable
findings like edema, pain, or a seizure history. *
Question 2
When assigning tasks to assistive personnel (AP), which action demonstrates
appropriate delegation?
,A. Asking the AP to assess a client's pain level using a 0-10 scale
B. Instructing the AP to reinforce teaching about insulin administration
C. Directing the AP to measure a client's vital signs on a stable postoperative
client
D. Delegating the AP to administer a tube feeding to a client with a PEG tube
Answer: C
Rationale: APs can perform routine, non-invasive tasks such as obtaining vital
signs on stable clients. Assessment of pain (A) requires nursing judgment to
interpret findings and intervene. Teaching (B) requires licensed nursing knowledge
to evaluate understanding and reinforce education. Tube feedings (D) require
verification of placement, residual checks, and assessment of tolerance—tasks
beyond AP scope.
Question 3
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse perform suctioning for a client
who has a tracheostomy. For which of the following actions should the charge
nurse intervene?
A. Pre-oxygenates the client before suctioning
B. Suctions for 30 seconds
C. Uses sterile technique
D. Suctions on withdrawal
Answer: B
*Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxia.
Prolonged suctioning (30 seconds) can cause hypoxemia, bradycardia, and cardiac
arrest. Pre-oxygenation (A) is correct practice. Sterile technique (C) prevents
infection. Suctioning on withdrawal (D) rather than during insertion minimizes
mucosal trauma. *
,Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative day 1 following abdominal
surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider immediately?
A. Heart rate 88/min
B. Respiratory rate 28/min
C. Temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F)
D. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
Answer: B
*Rationale: Tachypnea (RR >20) post-abdominal surgery may indicate atelectasis,
pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, or pain. This requires immediate assessment
and intervention. The other vital signs are within normal limits. *
Question 5
A nurse is witnessing a client sign an informed consent. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Ensure the provider has explained risks, benefits, and alternatives
B. Explain the procedure to the client in detail
C. Sign the consent form as a witness to the client's signature only
D. Witness that the client was coerced into signing
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the client's signature
and verify that the client is signing voluntarily and appears to understand what
they are signing. The provider is legally responsible for explaining the procedure,
risks, benefits, and alternatives (A). The nurse should not explain the procedure in
detail (B) as that is the provider's role. The nurse should verify lack of coercion, not
witness coercion (D).
, Question 6
A nurse is planning to obtain a 12-lead ECG for a client who has a history of
cardiac dysrhythmias. Which action should the nurse plan to take?
A. Instruct the client to remain as still as possible during the recording
B. Apply the electrodes to the client's bony prominences
C. Have the client hold their breath during the recording
D. Place the client in a supine position with legs elevated
Answer: A
Rationale: Movement during ECG recording can cause artifact and interfere with
interpretation. Electrodes should be placed on flat, fleshy areas (not bony
prominences, B). The client should breathe normally (not hold breath, C). Leg
elevation (D) is not required.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has a DNR order and is experiencing respiratory
distress. The family asks the nurse to "do everything possible." Which action
should the nurse take?
A. Initiate CPR and call a code blue
B. Call a code but do not begin compressions
C. Provide comfort measures and support the family
D. Ask the family if they want the DNR honored
Answer: C
Rationale: A valid DNR order must be honored. The nurse's role shifts to providing
comfort, dignity, and family support. CPR is specifically not indicated. The DNR
order is legally binding; the family cannot override it in the moment, though they
can request a provider review.
Question 8
