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NURS 6501 Final Exam Questions and Answers Summer 2026 Walden University

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NURS 6501 Final Exam Questions and Answers Summer 2026 Walden University Question 1. Atrial fibrillation with a left atrial thrombus causes a focal ischemic stroke. Which type of stroke is most likely? A. Hemorrhagic stroke B. Thrombotic stroke C. Embolic stroke D. Lacunar stroke Question 2. Identify the statement that is NOT true about tension-type headaches: A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur B. Onset of symptoms is typically gradual C. They typically affect both sides of the head D. They are the most common type of headache Question 3. Which clinical characteristic is most typical of vascular dementia? A. Insidious onset with slow progressive cognitive decline B. Early hallucinations and Parkinsonian features C. Stepwise deterioration in cognitive function D. Presence of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques Question 4. Palpitations, trembling, and a sense of impending doom began shortly after starting a new pain medication. Most likely diagnosis? A. Post-traumatic stress disorder B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Panic disorder D. Medication-induced anxiety disorder Question 5. Gradual memory decline and steadily progressive executive dysfunction over 2 years, with no motor symptoms early on, is most consistent with: A. Vascular dementia B. Alzheimer disease C. Frontotemporal dementia D. Dementia with Lewy bodies Question 6. Which is NOT a common feature of cluster headaches? A. Short attacks with peaks in 5–10 minutes B. Deep, intense, boring pain around the orbit C. Nausea and vomiting are typical accompanying symptoms D. More common in young adult men

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Question 1. Atrial fibrillation with a left atrial thrombus causes a focal ischemic stroke. Which
type of stroke is most likely?
A. Hemorrhagic stroke
B. Thrombotic stroke
C. Embolic stroke
D. Lacunar stroke


Question 2. Identify the statement that is NOT true about tension-type headaches:
A. Neurologic deficits such as weakness or numbness can occur
B. Onset of symptoms is typically gradual
C. They typically affect both sides of the head
D. They are the most common type of headache


Question 3. Which clinical characteristic is most typical of vascular dementia?
A. Insidious onset with slow progressive cognitive decline
B. Early hallucinations and Parkinsonian features
C. Stepwise deterioration in cognitive function
D. Presence of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques


Question 4. Palpitations, trembling, and a sense of impending doom began shortly after starting
a new pain medication. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
D. Medication-induced anxiety disorder


Question 5. Gradual memory decline and steadily progressive executive dysfunction over 2
years, with no motor symptoms early on, is most consistent with:
A. Vascular dementia
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Frontotemporal dementia
D. Dementia with Lewy bodies


Question 6. Which is NOT a common feature of cluster headaches?
A. Short attacks with peaks in 5–10 minutes
B. Deep, intense, boring pain around the orbit
C. Nausea and vomiting are typical accompanying symptoms
D. More common in young adult men

,Question 7. A patient has body stiffening followed by rhythmic jerking of the limbs. What is
expected immediately after?
A. Confused and drowsy after the episode
B. Quick return to normal activity and wide awake
C. Fully conscious throughout the episode
D. Headache and photophobia only


Question 8. Shuffling gait, resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia most strongly suggest:
A. Parkinson disease
B. Wilson disease
C. Huntington disease
D. Chronic ethanol intoxication


Question 9. Which brain structure is most notably affected by increased cortisol levels in
depression?
A. Basal ganglia
B. Hippocampus
C. Amygdala
D. Cerebellum


Question 10. What defines Tourette syndrome among hyperkinetic disorders?
A. Sustained muscle contractions and twisting movements
B. Abrupt, irregular, flowing movements
C. Both vocal and motor tics, often with ADHD/OCD association
D. Lightning-like muscle contractions treated with benzodiazepines


Question 11. How long must symptoms be present to meet diagnostic criteria for generalized
anxiety disorder?
A. 12 months
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 6 months


Question 12. A child speaks normally at home but will not speak at school or during public
performances despite ability. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Selective mutism
B. Autism spectrum disorder

, C. Social anxiety disorder
D. Expressive language disorder


Question 13. Extreme distress when separating from parents for school, with stomachaches
and missed school days, suggests:
A. Social anxiety disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Separation anxiety disorder
D. Major depressive disorder


Question 14. Painful genital vesicles are caused by what type of virus?
A. Double-stranded RNA virus
B. Double-stranded DNA virus
C. Retrovirus
D. Single-stranded RNA virus


Question 15. Which presentation is most consistent with disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC)?
A. Prolonged bleeding after surgical procedures only
B. Excessive clotting without any bleeding
C. Spontaneous bruising and bleeding, including oozing from venipuncture sites
D. Isolated DVT with no bleeding


Question 16. In OCD, obsessions are best defined as:
A. Voluntary thought patterns that relieve anxiety
B. Pleasurable fantasies that distract from tasks
C. Controllable worries about real-life problems
D. Recurrent intrusive unwanted thoughts causing significant distress


Question 17. How does elevated prolactin cause amenorrhea?
A. It inhibits GnRH release
B. It decreases progesterone production
C. It increases FSH causing anovulation
D. It stimulates excess estrogen production


Question 18. Which is NOT a common mimic of transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
A. Syncope

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