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HESI COMPREHENSIVE EXAM ACTUAL 150 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES ALREADY GRADED A+

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Pass your HESI Comprehensive Exit Exam with confidence using the most current and comprehensive test bank available. This resource features 150 actual HESI-style exam questions with detailed answer rationales—already graded A+ by successful graduating nursing students. Covering all core content areas, this guide mirrors the exact domains tested on the HESI Comprehensive Exam: Medical-Surgical Nursing: Myocardial infarction (oxygen cannula priority, reteplase bleeding risk, digoxin apical pulse before administration), heart failure (pulmonary edema – raise head of bed first), coronary artery disease (aspirin daily for antiplatelet effect, smoking cessation, weightlifting avoidance), angina (nitroglycerin administration, calcium channel blockers for Prinzmetal angina, stable angina managed medically), hypertension (lisinopril, thiazide diuretics), COPD (high-calorie/high-protein diet, cheeseburger best choice, theophylline avoid caffeine), asthma (fluticasone after albuterol), pneumonia (levofloxacin fever as adverse reaction), pulmonary embolism (pleuritic chest pain, protamine sulfate for heparin overdose), chest tubes (bubbling in water seal indicates air leak – reinforce dressing, provide oxygen, auscultate lungs), tracheoesophageal fistula prevention (maintain cuff pressure), smoke inhalation (100% oxygen first), carbon monoxide poisoning (100% oxygen priority), flail chest (asymmetrical chest movement), hypovolemic shock (tachycardia initial sign, apply direct pressure, patent airway, IV fluids), DIC (d-dimer positive), ARDS (hypoxia), peritoneal dialysis, hemodialysis (raise legs for hypotension), kidney stones (calcium – aluminum hydroxide interaction with allopurinol), cirrhosis (muffled heart sounds warrant immediate intervention, cardiac cirrhosis causes peripheral edema), pancreatitis (elevated lipase/amylase), hepatitis (jaundice – check mucous membranes, avoid high-fat diet, no alcohol, rest), cholecystitis (low-fat diet), GERD, peptic ulcer disease (H. pylori screening), appendicitis. Pharmacology: Digoxin (apical pulse before administration, therapeutic level 0.5-0.8 ng/mL, toxicity: anorexia, nausea, visual disturbances), heparin (protamine sulfate antidote, PTT monitoring, does NOT dissolve clots), warfarin (INR monitoring, vitamin K antidote), enoxaparin (administer lying down, abdominal subcutaneous injection), nitroglycerin (check blood pressure before second dose, sublingual administration), morphine sulfate (respiratory depression priority, anxiety relief in pulmonary edema), furosemide (hypokalemia – monitor cardiac rhythm), spironolactone, hydrochlorothiazide, ACE inhibitors (captopril – first-dose syncope, bed rest for 3 hours, angioedema, dry cough, rash, taste distortion), ARBs (losartan – facial edema angioedema), beta blockers (metoprolol for hypertension with asthma caution, propranolol for hyperthyroidism – decreases pulse rate), calcium channel blockers (verapamil – grapefruit juice causes hypotension, contraindicated in 2nd-degree AV block), amiodarone (avoid grapefruit juice), atropine (preoperative to prevent bradycardia), insulin (regular insulin only IV for DKA, glargine once daily at bedtime, NPH and regular mix – store syringes vertically needles up), oral hypoglycemics (metformin with morning meal, tolbutamide – avoid alcohol, glyburide interaction with lithium causes hyperglycemia), prednisone (take in morning before 9 a.m., monitor blood glucose in diabetics, report fever/sore throat/muscle aches), levothyroxine (morning before breakfast, full therapeutic effect takes 4 weeks), propylthiouracil (report sore throat – agranulocytosis), methimazole, desmopressin (intake/output monitoring, headache/nausea = water intoxication), vasopressin (chest pain adverse effect), calcium gluconate (increase high-fiber foods for constipation), alendronate (morning before breakfast with full glass of water, remain upright 30 minutes), iron supplements (ferrous sulfate with orange juice or tomato juice, not with milk/eggs, spinach avoid), cisplatin (hearing loss), cyclophosphamide (hemorrhagic cystitis – drink fluids, void frequently), ondansetron (Zofran – can be given by non-chemo certified nurse), morphine PCA (initiate lockout mechanism first), naloxone, protamine sulfate, phytonadione (vitamin K), acetylcysteine (for acetaminophen overdose – give before activated charcoal?), N-acetylcysteine. Mental Health Nursing: Depression (therapeutic response: "Tell me more about what you're feeling"), bipolar disorder (establish trusting relationship first, mania – warm bath at bedtime, finger foods for nutrition), schizophrenia (noncompliance – "Do you recall needing to be hospitalized when you stopped your medication?" delusions – "I don't think anyone can save the world by himself"), anxiety disorders, PTSD (posttrauma syndrome – honest/nonjudgmental, assess immediate reaction, journaling, ask about alcohol/drug use), obsessive-compulsive disorder (compulsions temporarily ease anxiety), avoidant personality disorder (feelings of inadequacy, extremely shy, sensitivity to rejection, hypersensitivity to negative evaluation), paranoid personality disorder (projects blame, may become hostile), conversion disorder (stress-related neurological symptoms), agoraphobia, systematic desensitization (gradual exposure to phobic object from least to most frightening), electroconvulsive therapy (administer antihypertensive with small sip of water, recent stroke contraindication), suicide risk (improvement in affect may indicate highest risk). Maternal-Newborn Nursing: Placenta previa (soft, relaxed, nontender uterus with painless vaginal bleeding), abruptio placentae (tachycardia, diminished peripheral pulses early signs of hypovolemic shock; lateral position with bed flat first action), postpartum hemorrhage (methylergonovine – check blood pressure first), postpartum assessment (fundus at umbilicus shifted to right = bladder distention – empty bladder first; tachycardia = check uterus and lochia first; temperature 100.4°F recheck in 4 hours), amniocentesis in third trimester (assess fetal lung maturity), amniotic fluid rupture (yellow, strong odor = chorioamnionitis – notify provider), oxytocin (uterine hypertonicity – stop infusion first), magnesium sulfate (calcium gluconate antidote at bedside), terbutaline (maternal HR 110 – notify provider), preeclampsia (home care – measure urine output, notify provider if 500 mL/24 hr), gestational diabetes (insulin needs decrease in first trimester), fetal monitoring (accelerations – document; late decelerations = uteroplacental insufficiency), postpartum lochia (reddish on day 8 abnormal – report), breastfeeding (count wet diapers – at least 6-10 per day indicates adequate intake; supplemental formula decreases milk supply), C-section, VBAC, circumcision. Pediatric Nursing: Sickle cell anemia (preschool pain assessment – FACES scale; carbohydrate snack before soccer game; Tylenol for fever; increased WBC count), Wilms' tumor (sign on bed: DO NOT PALPATE ABDOMEN), cystic fibrosis (CPT more frequently, at least one hour before meals), intussusception (increased heart rate indicates peritonitis), Hirschsprung disease, celiac disease (acceptable foods – boiled rice; avoid wheat/rye/barley/oats), lactose intolerance (cramping abdominal pain, excessive flatus), hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (weight loss, projectile vomiting, distended upper abdomen), esophageal atresia/tracheoesophageal fistula (drooling, excessive oral secretions), congenital diaphragmatic hernia (respiratory system most at risk), lead poisoning (dimercaprol – ask about peanut allergy), acetaminophen overdose (N-acetylcysteine), epiglottitis (notify provider and obtain tracheostomy tray first), otitis media (antipyrine/benzocaine otic – child lie with ear up 1-2 minutes after instillation), scoliosis (TLSO brace – not curative, wear 18-23 hours/day), cerebral palsy (nonprogressive, variable course), developmental milestones, immunizations (Hepatitis B at 2 months, MMR, Varicella, HPV at 11-12 years), failure to thrive. Emergency & Critical Care: Triage (open fracture bleeding profusely seen first), carbon monoxide poisoning (100% oxygen priority), smoke inhalation (100% oxygen first), epiglottitis (notify provider and obtain tracheostomy tray), anaphylaxis (epinephrine first), status epilepticus, code blue (unresponsive/pulseless – start CPR, call for help, place cardiac monitor leads next), poisoning (ammonia ingestion – give water or milk immediately, do NOT induce vomiting), burn injury (rule of nines: both lower extremities = 36%, primary goals: patent airway, IV fluids to prevent hypovolemic shock, preserve vital organ function), electrical injury, drowning, hypothermia. Geriatric Nursing: Osteoporosis (risk factors: smoking, high alcohol intake, white/Asian ethnicity, low BMI; foods high in calcium: sardines; weight-bearing exercise recommended), dementia vs. delirium (confusion at night with dementia, sundowning), polypharmacy, fall prevention, elder abuse. Leadership & Delegation: AP assignment (rheumatoid arthritis client needing feeding/ambulation most appropriate), licensed nurse responsibilities (assessments, medication administration, patient education), scope of practice (PN vs. RN vs. AP), triage, disaster management, priority setting (ABCs – airway, breathing, circulation), SBAR communication, informed consent, HIPAA, ethics (Jehovah's Witness refusing blood transfusion – support client's decision). Fundamentals & Professional Nursing: Therapeutic communication ("Tell me more about what you're feeling" – open-ended, exploring feelings; "Don't say that. If you can't control yourself, we'll help you" – firm, calm approach for manic client), nontherapeutic communication (clichés, false reassurance, requesting explanation, challenging), documentation (quote client's words verbatim in quotations; objective descriptions), NPO status (antihypertensive given with small sip of water before ECT), nasogastric tube (check residual and placement before feeding), sterile field (open sterile kit at waist level considered sterile; 1-inch border contaminated), restraints (half-bow knot must be quickly releasable; assess skin and circulation first), seizure precautions (move obstacles, monitor movements, observe airway, record duration – do NOT insert tongue blade, do NOT restrain), infection control (measles outbreak – restrict unvaccinated children from school), HIV (rapid finger stick tests give results in 20 minutes; transmission via breast milk and needle sharing; administer zidovudine to newborn for first 6 weeks; HIV culture at 1 and 4 months), TB skin test (must return in 48-72 hours), PPE, hand hygiene, sterile technique, medical asepsis. Fluid & Electrolytes & ABG Interpretation: Hypokalemia (digoxin toxicity risk, U wave, cardiac monitoring priority), hyperkalemia (peaked T waves), hyponatremia (SIADH, confusion), hypernatremia (thirst, fever), hypocalcemia (Trousseau sign – check serum calcium), hypercalcemia, dehydration (increased specific gravity 1.035 – encourage fluids), fluid overload, ABG interpretation (respiratory alkalosis – pH 7.50, Pco2 30; respiratory acidosis – increase ventilator rate; hypoxemic respiratory failure – PaO2 49, PaCO2 32), metabolic acidosis (Kussmaul respirations), metabolic alkalosis. Perfect for nursing students preparing for the HESI Comprehensive Exit Exam, NCLEX-RN, and final semester capstone exams. Each answer includes the verified correct response with detailed rationales to ensure exam readiness and clinical reasoning.

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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

HESI COMPREHENSIVE EXAM ACTUAL 150 QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES ALREADY GRADED
A+




A client who recently underwent coronary artery bypass graft surgery comes to the
primary health care provider's office for a follow-up visit. On assessment, the
client tells the nurse that he is feeling depressed. Which response by the nurse is
therapeutic?

"Tell me more about what you're feeling."
"That's a normal response after this type of surgery."
"It will take time, but I promise you, you will get over this depression."
"Every client who has this surgery feels the same way for about a month." - ANS...
-"Tell me more about what you're feeling."

Rationale: The therapeutic response by the nurse is, "Tell me more about what
you're feeling." When a client expresses feelings of depression, it is extremely
important for the nurse to further explore these feelings with the client. In stating,
"This is a normal response after this type of surgery" the nurse provides false
reassurance and avoids addressing the client's feelings. "It will take time, but I
promise you, you will get over the depression" is also a false reassurance, and it
does not encourage the expression of feelings. "Every client who has this surgery
feels the same way for about a month" is a generalization that avoids the client's
feelings.

A client in labor experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. The nurse
immediately counts the fetal heart rate (FHR) for 1 full minute and then checks the
amniotic fluid. The nurse notes that the fluid is yellow and has a strong odor.
Which action should be the nurse's priority?

Contact the primary health care provider
Document the findings
Check the fluid for protein
Continue to monitor the client and the FHR - ANS... -Contact the primary health
care provider

,Rationale: The priority action is for the nurse to contact the primary health care
provider. The FHR is assessed for at least 1 minute when the membranes rupture.
The nurse also checks the quantity, color, and odor of the amniotic fluid. The fluid
should be clear (often with bits of vernix) and have a mild odor. Fluid with a foul
or strong odor, cloudy appearance, or yellow coloration suggests chorioamnionitis
and warrants notifying the primary health care provider. A large amount of vernix
in the fluid suggests that the fetus is preterm. Greenish, meconium-stained fluid
may be seen in cases of postterm gestation or placental insufficiency. Checking the
fluid for protein is not associated with the data in the question. The nurse would
continue to monitor the client and the FHR and would document the findings.

A nurse has assisted a primary health care provider in inserting a central venous
access device into a client with a diagnosis of severe malnutrition who will be
receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). After insertion of the catheter what does the
nurse immediately do?

Call the radiography department to obtain a chest x-ray
Check the client's blood glucose level to serve as a baseline measurement
Hang the prescribed bag of PN and start the infusion at the prescribed rate
Infuse normal saline solution through the catheter at a rate of 100 mL/hr to
maintain patency - ANS... -Call the radiography department to obtain a chest x-ray

Rationale: The nurse should immediately make arrangements to have a chest x-ray
done. One major complication associated with central venous catheter placement is
pneumothorax, which may result from accidental puncture of the lung. After the
catheter has been placed but before it is used for infusions, its placement must be
checked with an x-ray. Hanging the prescribed bag of PN and starting the infusion
at the prescribed rate and infusing normal saline solution through the catheter at a
rate of 100 mL/hr to maintain patency are all incorrect because they could result in
the infusion of solution into a lung if a pneumothorax is present. Although the
nurse may obtain a blood glucose measurement to serve as a baseline, this action is
not the priority.

A rape victim being treated in the emergency department says to the nurse, "I'm
really worried that I've got HIV now." What is the most appropriate response by
the nurse?

"HIV is rarely an issue in rape victims."
"Every rape victim is concerned about HIV."
"You're more likely to get pregnant than to contract HIV."

,"Let's talk about the information that you need to determine your risk of
contracting HIV." - ANS... -"Let's talk about the information that you need to
determine your risk of contracting HIV."

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is the one that encourages
the client to talk about her condition. HIV is a concern of rape victims. Such
concern should always be addressed, and the victim should be given the
information needed to evaluate his or her risk. Pregnancy may occur as a result of
rape, and pregnancy prophylaxis can be offered in the emergency department or
during follow-up, once the results of a pregnancy test have been obtained.
However, stating, "You're more likely to get pregnant than to contract HIV" avoids
the client's concern. Similarly, "HIV is rarely an issue in rape victims" and "Every
rape victim is concerned about HIV" are generalized responses that avoid the
client's concern.



Enalapril maleate is prescribed for a hospitalized client. Which assessment does
the nurse perform as a priority before administering the medication?

Checking the client's blood pressure
Checking the client's peripheral pulses
Checking the most recent potassium level
Checking the client's intake-and-output record for the last 24 hours - ANS... -
Checking the client's blood pressure

Rationale: Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
used to treat hypertension. One common side effect is postural hypotension.
Therefore the nurse would check the client's blood pressure immediately before
administering each dose. Checking the client's peripheral pulses, the results of the
most recent potassium level, and the intake and output for the previous 24 hours
are not specifically associated with this mediation.

A client is scheduled to undergo an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series, and the nurse
provides instructions to the client about the test. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further instruction?

"The test will take about 30 minutes."
"I need to fast for 8 hours before the test."

, "I need to drink citrate of magnesia the night before the test and give myself a Fleet
enema on the morning of the test."
"I need to take a laxative after the test is completed, because the liquid that I'll have
to drink for the test can be constipating." - ANS... -"I need to drink citrate of
magnesia the night before the test and give myself a Fleet enema on the morning of
the test."

Rationale: No special preparation is necessary before a GI series, except that NPO
(nothing by mouth) status must be maintained for 8 hours before the test. An upper
GI series involves visualization of the esophagus, duodenum, and upper jejunum
by means of the use of a contrast medium. It involves swallowing a contrast
medium (usually barium), which is administered in a flavored milkshake. Films are
taken at intervals during the test, which takes about 30 minutes. After an upper GI
series, the client is prescribed a laxative to hasten elimination of the barium.
Barium that remains in the colon may become hard and difficult to expel, leading
to fecal impaction.

A nurse on the evening shift checks a primary health care provider's prescriptions
and notes that the dose of a prescribed medication is higher than the normal dose.
The nurse calls the primary health care provider's answering service and is told that
the primary health care provider is off for the night and will be available in the
morning. What should the nurse do next?

Call the nursing supervisor
Ask the answering service to contact the on-call primary health care provider
Withhold the medication until the primary health care provider can be reached in
the morning
Administer the medication but consult the primary health care provider when he
becomes available - ANS... -Ask the answering service to contact the on-call
primary health care provider

Rationale: The nurse has a duty to protect the client from harm. A nurse who
believes that a primary health care provider's prescription may be in error is
responsible for clarifying the prescription before carrying it out. Therefore the
nurse would not administer the medication; instead, the nurse would withhold the
medication until the dose can be clarified. The nurse would not wait until the next
morning to obtain clarification. It is premature to call the nursing supervisor.

An emergency department (ED) nurse is monitoring a client with suspected acute
myocardial infarction (MI) who is awaiting transfer to the coronary intensive care

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