WPU NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing Exam III Comprehensive Study Manual (2026/2027 Blueprint) | High-Yield Outlines, Bioethics Cheat Sheets, Practice Exams & Detailed Rationales

2026/2027


NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing
Exam III 2026/2027 Comprehensive Study
Manual with Practice Exams and Detailed
Rationales


Question 1
What is the most common cause of hot flashes during perimenopause?
A. High progesterone levels
B. Fluctuating estrogen levels
C. Excess testosterone
D. Thyroid failure

Correct Answer: B. Fluctuating estrogen levels

Rationale: Hot flashes are caused by unstable estrogen levels affecting
thermoregulation. Progesterone (A) and testosterone (C) are not primary causes, and
thyroid failure (D) may cause temperature issues but not classic menopausal hot
flashes.


Question 2:
Which physical exam finding in a 65-year-old woman requires urgent evaluation for
breast cancer?
A. Breast tenderness
B. Bilateral nipple discharge
C. New inverted nipple
D. Cyclical breast pain

Correct Answer: C. New inverted nipple

Rationale: A new inverted nipple is a red flag for malignancy. Tenderness (A) and
cyclical pain (D) are usually benign, while bilateral discharge (B) is less concerning
than unilateral structural change.


Question 3:
Which is NOT typical of primary syphilis?
A. Painless chancre
B. Local lymphadenopathy

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C. Flu-like symptoms
D. Firm ulcerative lesion

Correct Answer: C. Flu-like symptoms

Rationale: Primary syphilis presents with painless chancre and local nodes. Flu-like
symptoms are more typical of secondary syphilis.


Question 4:
What is a key patient teaching point when prescribing metronidazole for
trichomoniasis?
A. Take with dairy
B. Avoid alcohol
C. Increase sun exposure
D. Take only on empty stomach

Correct Answer: B. Avoid alcohol

Rationale: Metronidazole causes a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol. The other
options are not required.


Question 5:
At what age should cervical cancer screening begin?
A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 30 years

Correct Answer: B. 21 years

Rationale: Screening begins at 21 regardless of sexual activity. Earlier screening is
unnecessary.


Question 6:
Which finding is most consistent with chlamydia infection?
A. Thick white discharge
B. Frothy green discharge
C. Vaginal discharge with cervical inflammation
D. No symptoms ever

Correct Answer: C. Vaginal discharge with cervical inflammation

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Rationale: Chlamydia often causes cervicitis. Thick discharge suggests candidiasis,
frothy discharge suggests trichomoniasis.


Question 7:
What is first-line treatment for primary genital herpes?
A. Valacyclovir 1 g once
B. Acyclovir 400 mg TID for 7–10 days
C. Fluconazole single dose
D. Metronidazole 500 mg BID

Correct Answer: B. Acyclovir 400 mg TID for 7–10 days

Rationale: Acyclovir is standard first-line antiviral therapy for primary HSV infection.


Question 8:
A foul-smelling, frothy yellow-green discharge with strawberry cervix suggests:
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Gonorrhea only

Correct Answer: C. Trichomoniasis

Rationale: Strawberry cervix is classic for trichomoniasis.


Question 9:
What is first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
A. Fluconazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Acyclovir
D. Amoxicillin

Correct Answer: B. Metronidazole

Rationale: BV is treated with metronidazole, not antifungals or antivirals.


Question 10:
Thick curd-like vaginal discharge after antibiotics suggests:
A. BV
B. Trichomoniasis