NUR 155 Exam 2, 3 and 4 Combined Actual Exam
2026/2027: Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Foundational Nursing Concepts | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Basic Care and Comfort | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pharmacology and Medication Calculations | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Health Promotion and Patient Education | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Clinical Judgment and Safety | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONAL NURSING CONCEPTS Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old patient admitted for dehydration. During the morning
assessment, the nurse notes the patient is confused and has dry mucous membranes.
The nurse reviews the chart and sees the patient has a history of heart failure and is on
a 1,500 mL fluid restriction. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the fluid restriction to 2,000 mL to replace losses
B. Notify the provider immediately and request a saline bolus
C. Perform a focused cardiovascular assessment and check orthostatic vital signs ✓
CORRECT
D. Document the findings and continue monitoring every 4 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Confusion and dry mucous membranes in an older adult with heart failure
require immediate assessment for orthostatic hypotension and volume status before
,any intervention. Increasing fluids could precipitate fluid overload in a patient with heart
failure, so a focused cardiovascular assessment must come first. Older adults often
present with atypical signs of dehydration, and orthostatic changes are an early
indicator of hypovolemia.
Question 2 of 50
During a routine shift assessment, a nurse notices a 45-year-old postoperative patient
has developed a fever of 38.9°C (102°F) on postoperative day 2. The patient had a
laparoscopic cholecystectomy and has been ambulating as ordered. The incision is
clean and dry, and lung sounds are clear bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of this
fever?
A. Atelectasis from shallow breathing and reduced mobility ✓ CORRECT
B. Wound infection at the laparoscopic port sites
C. Reaction to the anesthesia gases used during surgery
D. Deep vein thrombosis forming in the lower extremities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postoperative fever within the first 48 hours is most commonly caused by
atelectasis, especially when lung sounds are clear but the patient may still have shallow
breathing despite ambulation. Wound infection typically presents after postoperative
day 3 to 5, not day 2. Encouraging deep breathing and use of the incentive spirometer is
the standard nursing response for atelectasis-related fever.
Question 3 of 50
A nurse is caring for a 32-year-old patient who was admitted with community-acquired
pneumonia. The patient is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula and has a
SpO2 of 94%. The patient asks if they can remove the oxygen to walk to the bathroom.
What is the nurse's best response?
,A. "Yes, but only for 5 minutes at a time"
B. "No, you must keep it on until your infection clears"
C. "You can switch to a simple face mask while walking"
D. "Keep the nasal cannula on and use a portable oxygen tank while ambulating" ✓
CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with pneumonia on low-flow oxygen should maintain continuous
oxygen delivery during ambulation to prevent desaturation, and a portable tank allows
safe mobility. Removing oxygen even briefly can cause hypoxemia in a patient with
compromised gas exchange. Many hospitals have portable oxygen systems specifically
for this purpose, and maintaining activity while oxygenated supports recovery.
Question 4 of 50
A nursing student is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a 65-year-old male patient
who has urinary retention following hip surgery. The patient is uncircumcised. What is
the correct sequence for catheter insertion in this patient?
A. Insert the catheter, inflate the balloon, then retract the foreskin
B. Retract the foreskin, cleanse the meatus, insert the catheter, and replace the foreskin
✓ CORRECT
C. Cleanse the meatus first, then retract the foreskin and insert the catheter
D. Retract the foreskin, insert the catheter, inflate the balloon, and leave it retracted
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an uncircumcised male, the foreskin must be retracted to expose the
meatus for proper cleansing and catheter insertion, then returned to its natural position
afterward to prevent paraphimosis. Leaving the foreskin retracted can cause painful
swelling and vascular compromise. This is a critical safety step that nursing students
often forget during skills testing.
Question 5 of 50
, A nurse is reviewing the morning laboratory results for a 58-year-old patient with type 2
diabetes. The fasting blood glucose is 248 mg/dL, and the patient is scheduled for a
contrast-enhanced CT scan at 10:00 AM. The patient took their usual metformin dose at
7:00 AM with breakfast. What action should the nurse take?
A. Hold the metformin and notify the provider about the elevated glucose before the
scan ✓ CORRECT
B. Give the patient a rapid-acting insulin dose to lower the glucose before the scan
C. Proceed with the scan and ensure the patient drinks extra water afterward
D. Check the patient's hemoglobin A1c to determine if the scan should be postponed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin should be held before and after contrast studies due to the risk of
lactic acidosis, and an elevated glucose of 248 mg/dL warrants provider notification for
possible insulin coverage before the procedure. Administering insulin without a provider
order is outside the nurse's scope and could cause hypoglycemia. The combination of
contrast dye and metformin increases renal risk, making provider communication
essential.
Question 6 of 50
A nurse is caring for a patient who had a total knee replacement 6 hours ago. The
patient has a Jackson-Pratt drain in place with 120 mL of serosanguineous drainage in
the collection bulb. The nurse empties the drain and resets the suction. Thirty minutes
later, the patient reports increased pain and the nurse notes the bulb is fully expanded.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Document the drainage amount and medicate for pain
B. Milk the tubing to remove any clots obstructing flow
C. Remove the drain and apply a pressure dressing
D. Check the drain tubing for kinks and ensure the plug is sealed ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
2026/2027: Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Foundational Nursing Concepts | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Basic Care and Comfort | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Pharmacology and Medication Calculations | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Health Promotion and Patient Education | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Clinical Judgment and Safety | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONAL NURSING CONCEPTS Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old patient admitted for dehydration. During the morning
assessment, the nurse notes the patient is confused and has dry mucous membranes.
The nurse reviews the chart and sees the patient has a history of heart failure and is on
a 1,500 mL fluid restriction. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the fluid restriction to 2,000 mL to replace losses
B. Notify the provider immediately and request a saline bolus
C. Perform a focused cardiovascular assessment and check orthostatic vital signs ✓
CORRECT
D. Document the findings and continue monitoring every 4 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Confusion and dry mucous membranes in an older adult with heart failure
require immediate assessment for orthostatic hypotension and volume status before
,any intervention. Increasing fluids could precipitate fluid overload in a patient with heart
failure, so a focused cardiovascular assessment must come first. Older adults often
present with atypical signs of dehydration, and orthostatic changes are an early
indicator of hypovolemia.
Question 2 of 50
During a routine shift assessment, a nurse notices a 45-year-old postoperative patient
has developed a fever of 38.9°C (102°F) on postoperative day 2. The patient had a
laparoscopic cholecystectomy and has been ambulating as ordered. The incision is
clean and dry, and lung sounds are clear bilaterally. What is the most likely cause of this
fever?
A. Atelectasis from shallow breathing and reduced mobility ✓ CORRECT
B. Wound infection at the laparoscopic port sites
C. Reaction to the anesthesia gases used during surgery
D. Deep vein thrombosis forming in the lower extremities
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postoperative fever within the first 48 hours is most commonly caused by
atelectasis, especially when lung sounds are clear but the patient may still have shallow
breathing despite ambulation. Wound infection typically presents after postoperative
day 3 to 5, not day 2. Encouraging deep breathing and use of the incentive spirometer is
the standard nursing response for atelectasis-related fever.
Question 3 of 50
A nurse is caring for a 32-year-old patient who was admitted with community-acquired
pneumonia. The patient is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula and has a
SpO2 of 94%. The patient asks if they can remove the oxygen to walk to the bathroom.
What is the nurse's best response?
,A. "Yes, but only for 5 minutes at a time"
B. "No, you must keep it on until your infection clears"
C. "You can switch to a simple face mask while walking"
D. "Keep the nasal cannula on and use a portable oxygen tank while ambulating" ✓
CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with pneumonia on low-flow oxygen should maintain continuous
oxygen delivery during ambulation to prevent desaturation, and a portable tank allows
safe mobility. Removing oxygen even briefly can cause hypoxemia in a patient with
compromised gas exchange. Many hospitals have portable oxygen systems specifically
for this purpose, and maintaining activity while oxygenated supports recovery.
Question 4 of 50
A nursing student is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a 65-year-old male patient
who has urinary retention following hip surgery. The patient is uncircumcised. What is
the correct sequence for catheter insertion in this patient?
A. Insert the catheter, inflate the balloon, then retract the foreskin
B. Retract the foreskin, cleanse the meatus, insert the catheter, and replace the foreskin
✓ CORRECT
C. Cleanse the meatus first, then retract the foreskin and insert the catheter
D. Retract the foreskin, insert the catheter, inflate the balloon, and leave it retracted
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For an uncircumcised male, the foreskin must be retracted to expose the
meatus for proper cleansing and catheter insertion, then returned to its natural position
afterward to prevent paraphimosis. Leaving the foreskin retracted can cause painful
swelling and vascular compromise. This is a critical safety step that nursing students
often forget during skills testing.
Question 5 of 50
, A nurse is reviewing the morning laboratory results for a 58-year-old patient with type 2
diabetes. The fasting blood glucose is 248 mg/dL, and the patient is scheduled for a
contrast-enhanced CT scan at 10:00 AM. The patient took their usual metformin dose at
7:00 AM with breakfast. What action should the nurse take?
A. Hold the metformin and notify the provider about the elevated glucose before the
scan ✓ CORRECT
B. Give the patient a rapid-acting insulin dose to lower the glucose before the scan
C. Proceed with the scan and ensure the patient drinks extra water afterward
D. Check the patient's hemoglobin A1c to determine if the scan should be postponed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin should be held before and after contrast studies due to the risk of
lactic acidosis, and an elevated glucose of 248 mg/dL warrants provider notification for
possible insulin coverage before the procedure. Administering insulin without a provider
order is outside the nurse's scope and could cause hypoglycemia. The combination of
contrast dye and metformin increases renal risk, making provider communication
essential.
Question 6 of 50
A nurse is caring for a patient who had a total knee replacement 6 hours ago. The
patient has a Jackson-Pratt drain in place with 120 mL of serosanguineous drainage in
the collection bulb. The nurse empties the drain and resets the suction. Thirty minutes
later, the patient reports increased pain and the nurse notes the bulb is fully expanded.
What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Document the drainage amount and medicate for pain
B. Milk the tubing to remove any clots obstructing flow
C. Remove the drain and apply a pressure dressing
D. Check the drain tubing for kinks and ensure the plug is sealed ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
