NUR 101 FUNDAMENTALS OF
NURSING – FINAL EXAM (2026
UPDATED) QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GRADED A+/2026
UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Qs 1–15)
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action
best follows the CDC 2026 guidelines for catheter-associated UTI prevention?
A. Use sterile gloves only, not a full sterile field.
B. Insert a larger gauge catheter to prevent leakage.
C. Use a preconnected, closed drainage system with a sterile lubricant
containing an antiseptic.
D. Change the catheter every 24 hours to reduce biofilm.
Rationale: Closed drainage systems and antiseptic lubricants reduce bacterial entry.
Larger gauges cause trauma; daily changes increase infection risk.
2. A client falls while attempting to walk to the bathroom unassisted. What is
the nurse’s priority action immediately after the fall?
A. Complete an incident report.
B. Notify the provider.
C. Assess the client for injury.
D. Restrain the client to prevent another fall.
Rationale: Assess first for harm. Incident report comes after stabilizing the patient.
Restraints are last resort.
3. According to the 2026 National Patient Safety Goals, which identifier is
required when administering blood products?
,A. Room number and bed number
B. Two patient identifiers (e.g., name and medical record number)
C. Provider’s verbal order
D. Fingerprint scan only
Rationale: Two identifiers (not room/bed) are mandatory. Fingerprint can be one of
two, but never alone.
4. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which task can be delegated to an
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a post-op patient’s lung sounds
B. Measuring a stable patient’s oral temperature
C. Teaching insulin injection technique
D. Suctioning a tracheostomy
Rationale: Vital signs on stable patients are within UAP scope. Assessment, teaching,
and suctioning require licensed nursing judgment.
5. A client on a medical-surgical unit is placed in restraints. Which action
violates the 2026 Restraint Guidelines?
A. Obtaining a provider’s order within 4 hours of application
B. Restraining the patient for 6 hours without reassessment
C. Documenting the patient’s behavior every 2 hours
D. Removing restraints every 2 hours to check skin
Rationale: Restraints require q2h monitoring and release. Maximum 4 hours for
adults without new order.
6. Which finding indicates a fire in the healthcare facility requires immediate
evacuation of the immediate zone?
A. Smoke coming from an electrical outlet with no visible flames
B. Rapidly spreading flames in the med room with sprinklers not activating
C. A small trash can fire that was extinguished with a blanket
D. Alarm sounding but no smoke detected
Rationale: RACE – Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Rapidly spreading flames =
evacuate (Rescue).
7. A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication (IV heparin). What
is the best safety practice?
A. Have another nurse double-check the pump settings and dose.
B. Rely only on the electronic MAR.
C. Use independent double-check and verbalize “read back” of dose.
D. Program the pump without a second signature if busy.
, Rationale: Independent double-check + read-back is 2026 ISMP standard for high-
alert meds.
8. Which action by a student nurse demonstrates a breach of HIPAA?
A. Discussing a patient’s case with the clinical instructor in a private conference room
B. Posting a photo of a wound on a private Instagram story with no identifiers
C. Shredding printed lab results after scanning them into the EHR
D. Logging off the computer after viewing a patient’s record
Rationale: Any photo of patient or body part is a PHI breach, even without name,
due to context clues.
9. A client’s advance directive states “no CPR or intubation.” The client
becomes unresponsive with no pulse. The nurse should:
A. Begin CPR while calling a code.
B. Honor the directive and provide comfort measures.
C. Intubate immediately.
D. Call the family for permission.
Rationale: Advance directives must be honored. CPR would be battery.
10. Which situation requires the nurse to complete an incident report?
A. Patient’s IV infiltrates with no harm to patient.
B. Patient receives insulin lispro instead of regular insulin but no adverse effect.
C. Patient refuses a medication.
D. Patient’s blood pressure is 110/70.
Rationale: Medication error (wrong insulin type) requires incident report, even if no
harm.
11. A nurse is intervening in a conflict between two UAPs. Which approach
reflects 2026 Just Culture?
A. Fire both UAPs immediately.
B. Blame the UAP who made the first mistake.
C. Distinguish between human error, at-risk behavior, and reckless behavior.
D. Ignore the conflict unless patient harm occurs.
Rationale: Just Culture focuses on system improvement and fair accountability.
12. Which piece of equipment requires a weekly functional check in a patient
room per 2026 ECRI guidelines?
A. Overbed table
B. Suction regulator and canister
C. Call light cord
D. Window blinds
NURSING – FINAL EXAM (2026
UPDATED) QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES/GRADED A+/2026
UPDATE/100% CORRECT
/INSTANT DOWNLOAD
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Qs 1–15)
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action
best follows the CDC 2026 guidelines for catheter-associated UTI prevention?
A. Use sterile gloves only, not a full sterile field.
B. Insert a larger gauge catheter to prevent leakage.
C. Use a preconnected, closed drainage system with a sterile lubricant
containing an antiseptic.
D. Change the catheter every 24 hours to reduce biofilm.
Rationale: Closed drainage systems and antiseptic lubricants reduce bacterial entry.
Larger gauges cause trauma; daily changes increase infection risk.
2. A client falls while attempting to walk to the bathroom unassisted. What is
the nurse’s priority action immediately after the fall?
A. Complete an incident report.
B. Notify the provider.
C. Assess the client for injury.
D. Restrain the client to prevent another fall.
Rationale: Assess first for harm. Incident report comes after stabilizing the patient.
Restraints are last resort.
3. According to the 2026 National Patient Safety Goals, which identifier is
required when administering blood products?
,A. Room number and bed number
B. Two patient identifiers (e.g., name and medical record number)
C. Provider’s verbal order
D. Fingerprint scan only
Rationale: Two identifiers (not room/bed) are mandatory. Fingerprint can be one of
two, but never alone.
4. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which task can be delegated to an
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a post-op patient’s lung sounds
B. Measuring a stable patient’s oral temperature
C. Teaching insulin injection technique
D. Suctioning a tracheostomy
Rationale: Vital signs on stable patients are within UAP scope. Assessment, teaching,
and suctioning require licensed nursing judgment.
5. A client on a medical-surgical unit is placed in restraints. Which action
violates the 2026 Restraint Guidelines?
A. Obtaining a provider’s order within 4 hours of application
B. Restraining the patient for 6 hours without reassessment
C. Documenting the patient’s behavior every 2 hours
D. Removing restraints every 2 hours to check skin
Rationale: Restraints require q2h monitoring and release. Maximum 4 hours for
adults without new order.
6. Which finding indicates a fire in the healthcare facility requires immediate
evacuation of the immediate zone?
A. Smoke coming from an electrical outlet with no visible flames
B. Rapidly spreading flames in the med room with sprinklers not activating
C. A small trash can fire that was extinguished with a blanket
D. Alarm sounding but no smoke detected
Rationale: RACE – Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish. Rapidly spreading flames =
evacuate (Rescue).
7. A nurse is preparing to administer a high-alert medication (IV heparin). What
is the best safety practice?
A. Have another nurse double-check the pump settings and dose.
B. Rely only on the electronic MAR.
C. Use independent double-check and verbalize “read back” of dose.
D. Program the pump without a second signature if busy.
, Rationale: Independent double-check + read-back is 2026 ISMP standard for high-
alert meds.
8. Which action by a student nurse demonstrates a breach of HIPAA?
A. Discussing a patient’s case with the clinical instructor in a private conference room
B. Posting a photo of a wound on a private Instagram story with no identifiers
C. Shredding printed lab results after scanning them into the EHR
D. Logging off the computer after viewing a patient’s record
Rationale: Any photo of patient or body part is a PHI breach, even without name,
due to context clues.
9. A client’s advance directive states “no CPR or intubation.” The client
becomes unresponsive with no pulse. The nurse should:
A. Begin CPR while calling a code.
B. Honor the directive and provide comfort measures.
C. Intubate immediately.
D. Call the family for permission.
Rationale: Advance directives must be honored. CPR would be battery.
10. Which situation requires the nurse to complete an incident report?
A. Patient’s IV infiltrates with no harm to patient.
B. Patient receives insulin lispro instead of regular insulin but no adverse effect.
C. Patient refuses a medication.
D. Patient’s blood pressure is 110/70.
Rationale: Medication error (wrong insulin type) requires incident report, even if no
harm.
11. A nurse is intervening in a conflict between two UAPs. Which approach
reflects 2026 Just Culture?
A. Fire both UAPs immediately.
B. Blame the UAP who made the first mistake.
C. Distinguish between human error, at-risk behavior, and reckless behavior.
D. Ignore the conflict unless patient harm occurs.
Rationale: Just Culture focuses on system improvement and fair accountability.
12. Which piece of equipment requires a weekly functional check in a patient
room per 2026 ECRI guidelines?
A. Overbed table
B. Suction regulator and canister
C. Call light cord
D. Window blinds
