NUR417 Exam 3 Prep
NUR417 EXAM 3 PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
120 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse
notes dry, pale, and hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful.
What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth?
a. First-degree skin destruction
b. Full-thickness skin destruction
c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction
d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction
ANS: B
With full-thickness skin destruction, the appearance is pale and dry or leathery,
and the area is painless because of the associated nerve destruction. Erythema,
swelling, and blisters point to a deep partial-thickness burn. With superficial
partial-thickness burns, the area is red, but no blisters are present. First-degree
burns exhibit erythema, blanching, and pain.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)
On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body
surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb
18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135
mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which of the following prescribed actions should be the
nurse's priority?
a. Monitoring urine output every 4 hours.
b. Continuing to monitor the laboratory results.
c. Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution.
d. Typing and crossmatching for a blood transfusion.
1|Page
, NUR417 Exam 3 Prep
ANS: C
The patient's laboratory results show hemoconcentration, which may lead to a
decrease in blood flow to the microcirculation unless fluid intake is increased.
Because the hematocrit and hemoglobin are elevated, a transfusion is
inappropriate, although transfusions may be needed after the emergent phase
once the patient's fluid balance has been restored. On admission to a burn unit,
the urine output would be monitored more often than every 4 hours (likely every1
hour).
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis
A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands.
Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased and
no wheezes are audible. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again.
b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation.
c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient's respiratory rate.
d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler's position and reassess breath sounds.
ANS: B
The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest airway edema, and the
health care provider should be notified immediately so that intubation can be
done rapidly. Placing the patient in a more upright position or having the patient
cough will not address the problem of airway edema. Continuing to monitor is
inappropriate because immediate action should occur.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the
Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24
hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first
8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids?
a. 219 mL/hr c. 938 mL/hr
b. 625 mL/hr d. 1875 mL/hr
2|Page
, NUR417 Exam 3 Prep
ANS: C
Half of the fluid replacement using the Parkland formula is administered in the
first 8 hours and the other half over the next 16 hours. In this case, the patient
should receive half of the initial rate, or 938 mL/hr.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in
determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion?
a. Check skin turgor. c. Assess mucous membranes.
b. Monitor daily weight. d. Measure hourly urine output.
ANS: D
When fluid intake is adequate, the urine output will be at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr.
The patient's weight is not useful in this situation because of the effects of third
spacing and evaporative fluid loss. Mucous membrane assessment and skin turgor
also may be used, but they are not as adequate in determining that fluid infusions
are maintaining adequate perfusion.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)
A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn
injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which
action?
a. Administer vitamins and minerals intravenously.
b. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral feedings.
c. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter.
d. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day.
ANS: B
Enteral feedings can usually be started during the emergent phase at low rates
and increased over 24 to 48 hours to the goal rate. During the emergent phase,
the patient will be unable to eat enough calories to meet nutritional needs and
may have a paralytic ileus that prevents adequate nutrient absorption. Vitamins
and minerals may be administered during the emergent phase, but these will not
3|Page
, NUR417 Exam 3 Prep
assist in meeting the patient's caloric needs. Parenteral nutrition increases the
infection risk, does not help preserve gastrointestinal function, and is not routinely
used in burn patients unless the gastrointestinal tract is not available for use.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
While the patient's full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed, what
nursing action prevents cross contamination?
a. Use sterile gloves when removing dressings.
b. Wear gown, cap, mask, and gloves during care.
c. Keep the room temperature at 70° F (20° C) at all times.
d. Give IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds.
ANS: B
Use of gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all patient care will decrease the
possibility of wound contamination for a patient whose burns are not covered.
When removing contaminated dressings and washing the dirty wound, use
nonsterile, disposable gloves. The room temperature should be kept at
approximately 85° F for patients with open burn wounds to prevent shivering.
Systemic antibiotics are not well absorbed into deep burns because of the lack of
circulation.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm
and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position?
a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort.
b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers.
c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head.
d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.
ANS: B
The right hand and arm should be elevated to reduce swelling and the fingers
extended to avoid flexion contractures (even though this position may not be
comfortable for the patient). The patient with burns of the ears should not use a
4|Page
NUR417 EXAM 3 PREP NEWEST 2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
120 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse
notes dry, pale, and hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful.
What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth?
a. First-degree skin destruction
b. Full-thickness skin destruction
c. Deep partial-thickness skin destruction
d. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction
ANS: B
With full-thickness skin destruction, the appearance is pale and dry or leathery,
and the area is painless because of the associated nerve destruction. Erythema,
swelling, and blisters point to a deep partial-thickness burn. With superficial
partial-thickness burns, the area is red, but no blisters are present. First-degree
burns exhibit erythema, blanching, and pain.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)
On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body
surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb
18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135
mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which of the following prescribed actions should be the
nurse's priority?
a. Monitoring urine output every 4 hours.
b. Continuing to monitor the laboratory results.
c. Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution.
d. Typing and crossmatching for a blood transfusion.
1|Page
, NUR417 Exam 3 Prep
ANS: C
The patient's laboratory results show hemoconcentration, which may lead to a
decrease in blood flow to the microcirculation unless fluid intake is increased.
Because the hematocrit and hemoglobin are elevated, a transfusion is
inappropriate, although transfusions may be needed after the emergent phase
once the patient's fluid balance has been restored. On admission to a burn unit,
the urine output would be monitored more often than every 4 hours (likely every1
hour).
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis
A patient is admitted to the burn unit with burns to the head, face, and hands.
Initially, wheezes are heard, but an hour later, the lung sounds are decreased and
no wheezes are audible. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
a. Encourage the patient to cough and auscultate the lungs again.
b. Notify the health care provider and prepare for endotracheal intubation.
c. Document the results and continue to monitor the patient's respiratory rate.
d. Reposition the patient in high-Fowler's position and reassess breath sounds.
ANS: B
The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest airway edema, and the
health care provider should be notified immediately so that intubation can be
done rapidly. Placing the patient in a more upright position or having the patient
cough will not address the problem of airway edema. Continuing to monitor is
inappropriate because immediate action should occur.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the
Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be administered in the first 24
hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first
8 hours, what rate should the nurse infuse the IV fluids?
a. 219 mL/hr c. 938 mL/hr
b. 625 mL/hr d. 1875 mL/hr
2|Page
, NUR417 Exam 3 Prep
ANS: C
Half of the fluid replacement using the Parkland formula is administered in the
first 8 hours and the other half over the next 16 hours. In this case, the patient
should receive half of the initial rate, or 938 mL/hr.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment will be most useful in
determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluid infusion?
a. Check skin turgor. c. Assess mucous membranes.
b. Monitor daily weight. d. Measure hourly urine output.
ANS: D
When fluid intake is adequate, the urine output will be at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr.
The patient's weight is not useful in this situation because of the effects of third
spacing and evaporative fluid loss. Mucous membrane assessment and skin turgor
also may be used, but they are not as adequate in determining that fluid infusions
are maintaining adequate perfusion.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)
A patient has just been admitted with a 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burn
injury. To maintain adequate nutrition, the nurse should plan to take which
action?
a. Administer vitamins and minerals intravenously.
b. Insert a feeding tube and initiate enteral feedings.
c. Infuse total parenteral nutrition via a central catheter.
d. Encourage an oral intake of at least 5000 kcal per day.
ANS: B
Enteral feedings can usually be started during the emergent phase at low rates
and increased over 24 to 48 hours to the goal rate. During the emergent phase,
the patient will be unable to eat enough calories to meet nutritional needs and
may have a paralytic ileus that prevents adequate nutrient absorption. Vitamins
and minerals may be administered during the emergent phase, but these will not
3|Page
, NUR417 Exam 3 Prep
assist in meeting the patient's caloric needs. Parenteral nutrition increases the
infection risk, does not help preserve gastrointestinal function, and is not routinely
used in burn patients unless the gastrointestinal tract is not available for use.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
While the patient's full-thickness burn wounds to the face are exposed, what
nursing action prevents cross contamination?
a. Use sterile gloves when removing dressings.
b. Wear gown, cap, mask, and gloves during care.
c. Keep the room temperature at 70° F (20° C) at all times.
d. Give IV antibiotics to prevent bacterial colonization of wounds.
ANS: B
Use of gowns, caps, masks, and gloves during all patient care will decrease the
possibility of wound contamination for a patient whose burns are not covered.
When removing contaminated dressings and washing the dirty wound, use
nonsterile, disposable gloves. The room temperature should be kept at
approximately 85° F for patients with open burn wounds to prevent shivering.
Systemic antibiotics are not well absorbed into deep burns because of the lack of
circulation.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)
A nurse is caring for a patient who has burns of the ears, head, neck, and right arm
and hand. The nurse should place the patient in which position?
a. Place the right arm and hand flexed in a position of comfort.
b. Elevate the right arm and hand on pillows and extend the fingers.
c. Assist the patient to a supine position with a small pillow under the head.
d. Position the patient in a side-lying position with rolled towel under the neck.
ANS: B
The right hand and arm should be elevated to reduce swelling and the fingers
extended to avoid flexion contractures (even though this position may not be
comfortable for the patient). The patient with burns of the ears should not use a
4|Page
