UCONN FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING FINAL EXAM
WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2026
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which finding best
indicates that the patient is experiencing fluid volume overload? A. Dry mucous
membranes and poor skin turgor B. Crackles in the lung bases and 2+ pitting edema C.
Decreased urine output with concentrated urine D. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Crackles and pitting edema are classic signs of fluid volume
excess in heart failure. Dry membranes and poor turgor indicate dehydration, while
concentrated urine and orthostatic hypotension also suggest fluid deficit.
2. When delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), the nurse knows that
which activity is appropriate to delegate? A. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive
spirometer B. Performing a sterile dressing change C. Assisting a stable patient with
ambulation D. Assessing a patient’s pain level after surgery
Correct Answer: C Explanation: UAP can assist with activities of daily living and ambulation
for stable patients. Assessment, teaching, and sterile procedures require nursing judgment and
cannot be delegated.
3. A patient with a urinary catheter develops a fever and suprapubic pain. What is the
nurse’s priority action? A. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day B. Obtain a urine
specimen for culture and sensitivity C. Administer the next scheduled dose of antibiotics
D. Clamp the catheter for 30 minutes
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Fever and suprapubic pain suggest a catheter-associated
urinary tract infection (CAUTI). Obtaining a culture before starting or changing antibiotics is
essential for targeted treatment.
4. Which principle of surgical asepsis is correctly demonstrated by the nurse? A. Reaching
over the sterile field to grab an instrument B. Considering the outer 1 inch of the sterile
drape as contaminated C. Touching the sterile field with non-sterile gloves D. Opening
sterile packages with the wrapper facing away from the body
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The outer 1-inch border of a sterile field is considered
contaminated. Reaching over the field, touching with non-sterile items, or improper opening
technique breaks sterile technique.
, 5. The nurse is evaluating a patient’s pain using the PQRST method. The patient reports
pain that is “sharp and stabbing.” This describes which component of the pain
assessment? A. Provocation B. Quality C. Region D. Severity
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Quality refers to the descriptive characteristics of pain (sharp,
dull, burning, etc.). PQRST includes Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation,
Severity, and Timing.
6. A 78-year-old patient is at high risk for falls. Which intervention is most appropriate? A.
Keep all four bed rails up at all times B. Use a vest restraint when the patient is in bed C.
Place the bed in the lowest position with brakes locked D. Encourage independent
ambulation without assistive devices
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lowering the bed reduces injury risk if a fall occurs. Full bed
rails and vest restraints are considered restraints and increase fall risk. Independent ambulation
without assessment is unsafe.
7. When administering insulin, the nurse understands that which type has the most rapid
onset? A. Insulin glargine (Lantus) B. Regular insulin C. Insulin lispro (Humalog) D.
NPH insulin
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Rapid-acting insulins such as lispro have onset within 15
minutes. Regular is short-acting (30–60 min), NPH is intermediate, and glargine is long-acting
with no pronounced peak.
8. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes
the SpO2 is 88%. What is the most appropriate next action? A. Increase oxygen to 4
L/min immediately B. Assess respiratory rate and effort C. Place the patient in
Trendelenburg position D. Suction the patient’s airway
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Before changing oxygen therapy, the nurse must assess the
patient’s respiratory status. COPD patients often have lower target SpO2 (88–92%) to avoid
suppressing hypoxic drive.
, 9. Which action demonstrates correct therapeutic communication technique? A. “You
shouldn’t feel that way.” B. “Why did you do that?” C. “Tell me more about how you’re
feeling.” D. “Everything will be fine, don’t worry.”
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Open-ended questions encourage patients to express feelings.
“You shouldn’t feel that way,” “why” questions, and false reassurance block therapeutic
communication.
10. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. In which position should the patient be
placed? A. Supine with head flat B. High Fowler’s position C. Left lateral position D.
Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: B Explanation: High Fowler’s position facilitates swallowing and uses gravity
to advance the tube, reducing aspiration risk during insertion.
11. A patient has a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. What is the most appropriate
dressing choice? A. Dry sterile gauze B. Hydrocolloid dressing C. Wet-to-dry dressing D.
Transparent film only
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hydrocolloid dressings maintain a moist healing environment
for stage 2 pressure injuries. Wet-to-dry is for debridement, and dry gauze is inappropriate for
moist wound healing.
12. When teaching a patient about hand hygiene, the nurse emphasizes that alcohol-based
hand rub is appropriate except when: A. Hands are not visibly soiled B. Caring for a
patient with C. difficile C. Before inserting an invasive device D. After removing gloves
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Alcohol-based rubs do not kill C. difficile spores. Soap and
water must be used for C. diff and visibly soiled hands.
13. The nurse calculates a patient’s body mass index (BMI) as 32. This classification is: A.
Normal weight B. Overweight C. Obesity Class I D. Obesity Class III
Correct Answer: C Explanation: BMI 30–34.9 is Obesity Class I. Normal is 18.5–24.9,
overweight 25–29.9, and Class III is ≥40.
WITH QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2026
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which finding best
indicates that the patient is experiencing fluid volume overload? A. Dry mucous
membranes and poor skin turgor B. Crackles in the lung bases and 2+ pitting edema C.
Decreased urine output with concentrated urine D. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Crackles and pitting edema are classic signs of fluid volume
excess in heart failure. Dry membranes and poor turgor indicate dehydration, while
concentrated urine and orthostatic hypotension also suggest fluid deficit.
2. When delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), the nurse knows that
which activity is appropriate to delegate? A. Teaching a patient how to use an incentive
spirometer B. Performing a sterile dressing change C. Assisting a stable patient with
ambulation D. Assessing a patient’s pain level after surgery
Correct Answer: C Explanation: UAP can assist with activities of daily living and ambulation
for stable patients. Assessment, teaching, and sterile procedures require nursing judgment and
cannot be delegated.
3. A patient with a urinary catheter develops a fever and suprapubic pain. What is the
nurse’s priority action? A. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day B. Obtain a urine
specimen for culture and sensitivity C. Administer the next scheduled dose of antibiotics
D. Clamp the catheter for 30 minutes
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Fever and suprapubic pain suggest a catheter-associated
urinary tract infection (CAUTI). Obtaining a culture before starting or changing antibiotics is
essential for targeted treatment.
4. Which principle of surgical asepsis is correctly demonstrated by the nurse? A. Reaching
over the sterile field to grab an instrument B. Considering the outer 1 inch of the sterile
drape as contaminated C. Touching the sterile field with non-sterile gloves D. Opening
sterile packages with the wrapper facing away from the body
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The outer 1-inch border of a sterile field is considered
contaminated. Reaching over the field, touching with non-sterile items, or improper opening
technique breaks sterile technique.
, 5. The nurse is evaluating a patient’s pain using the PQRST method. The patient reports
pain that is “sharp and stabbing.” This describes which component of the pain
assessment? A. Provocation B. Quality C. Region D. Severity
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Quality refers to the descriptive characteristics of pain (sharp,
dull, burning, etc.). PQRST includes Provocation/Palliation, Quality, Region/Radiation,
Severity, and Timing.
6. A 78-year-old patient is at high risk for falls. Which intervention is most appropriate? A.
Keep all four bed rails up at all times B. Use a vest restraint when the patient is in bed C.
Place the bed in the lowest position with brakes locked D. Encourage independent
ambulation without assistive devices
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Lowering the bed reduces injury risk if a fall occurs. Full bed
rails and vest restraints are considered restraints and increase fall risk. Independent ambulation
without assessment is unsafe.
7. When administering insulin, the nurse understands that which type has the most rapid
onset? A. Insulin glargine (Lantus) B. Regular insulin C. Insulin lispro (Humalog) D.
NPH insulin
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Rapid-acting insulins such as lispro have onset within 15
minutes. Regular is short-acting (30–60 min), NPH is intermediate, and glargine is long-acting
with no pronounced peak.
8. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes
the SpO2 is 88%. What is the most appropriate next action? A. Increase oxygen to 4
L/min immediately B. Assess respiratory rate and effort C. Place the patient in
Trendelenburg position D. Suction the patient’s airway
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Before changing oxygen therapy, the nurse must assess the
patient’s respiratory status. COPD patients often have lower target SpO2 (88–92%) to avoid
suppressing hypoxic drive.
, 9. Which action demonstrates correct therapeutic communication technique? A. “You
shouldn’t feel that way.” B. “Why did you do that?” C. “Tell me more about how you’re
feeling.” D. “Everything will be fine, don’t worry.”
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Open-ended questions encourage patients to express feelings.
“You shouldn’t feel that way,” “why” questions, and false reassurance block therapeutic
communication.
10. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube. In which position should the patient be
placed? A. Supine with head flat B. High Fowler’s position C. Left lateral position D.
Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: B Explanation: High Fowler’s position facilitates swallowing and uses gravity
to advance the tube, reducing aspiration risk during insertion.
11. A patient has a stage 2 pressure injury on the sacrum. What is the most appropriate
dressing choice? A. Dry sterile gauze B. Hydrocolloid dressing C. Wet-to-dry dressing D.
Transparent film only
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Hydrocolloid dressings maintain a moist healing environment
for stage 2 pressure injuries. Wet-to-dry is for debridement, and dry gauze is inappropriate for
moist wound healing.
12. When teaching a patient about hand hygiene, the nurse emphasizes that alcohol-based
hand rub is appropriate except when: A. Hands are not visibly soiled B. Caring for a
patient with C. difficile C. Before inserting an invasive device D. After removing gloves
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Alcohol-based rubs do not kill C. difficile spores. Soap and
water must be used for C. diff and visibly soiled hands.
13. The nurse calculates a patient’s body mass index (BMI) as 32. This classification is: A.
Normal weight B. Overweight C. Obesity Class I D. Obesity Class III
Correct Answer: C Explanation: BMI 30–34.9 is Obesity Class I. Normal is 18.5–24.9,
overweight 25–29.9, and Class III is ≥40.
