NR603 CEA Prep GI VERIFIED
VERSION OF {2026-2027} EXAM With
comprehensive Questions and Well
Elaborated Correct Answers GRADED
A+
Professional Academic Assistance Services
Services Offered
Proctored Exam Assistance
Online Class Management (Full Course Support)
Exam Preparation & Study Materials
Assignments and Coursework Support
Essays and Research Papers
Discussion Posts and Replies
Which of the following gastrointestinal changes is associated with normal aging? - correct
ans:Decreased production of gastric acid
, A 63-year-old male presents with a suspected lower GI bleed. He reports passing frank small amounts of
blood several times today. He denies use of NSAID's or blood thinners. What questions would be
important to ask to further differentiate your diagnosis? - correct ans:All options are appropriate
Rationale: All the above, these questions would help determine if this bleed was associated with a
potential diverticular bleed (typically painless), painful bowel movement associated with IBD
(UC/Crohn's), and changes in bowel habit/colonoscopy risk for malignancy.
Anorexia nervosa occurs most commonly in which of the following? - correct ans:High-level athletes
A 29-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain, he has a history of alcohol abuse, and
recurrent pancreatitis. Patient's Lipase is elevated, and he has nausea and vomiting as well. Abdominal
CT shows inflammatory changes around the pancreas. What is the most important intervention to
consider in the acute phase? - correct ans:Admit to the hospital for fluid resuscitation to avoid
hypovolemic state, and reduce risk of developing further complications
An adult female returns to the clinic with severe profuse watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and cramping
after treatment with Cipro x 10 days. WBC is 12.5, stool culture is positive for c diff. The NP would
recommend: - correct ans:Metronidazole 500 tid for 10-14 d
Rationale: Treatment of C Diff should include metronidazole (Flagyl) or PO vancomycin.
An adult presents with increasing abdominal girth. The nurse practitioner suspects ascites. Which finding
on physical exam would confirm the suspicion of ascites? - correct ans:Dullness shifts to the more
dependent side
Rationale: In the fluid wave test for ascites, dullness shifts to the more dependent side. The impulse of
the wave should be easily palpable.
A 45-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Endoscopy
reveals villous atrophy of the small intestine. What is the most appropriate initial management? -
correct ans:Gluten-free diet
VERSION OF {2026-2027} EXAM With
comprehensive Questions and Well
Elaborated Correct Answers GRADED
A+
Professional Academic Assistance Services
Services Offered
Proctored Exam Assistance
Online Class Management (Full Course Support)
Exam Preparation & Study Materials
Assignments and Coursework Support
Essays and Research Papers
Discussion Posts and Replies
Which of the following gastrointestinal changes is associated with normal aging? - correct
ans:Decreased production of gastric acid
, A 63-year-old male presents with a suspected lower GI bleed. He reports passing frank small amounts of
blood several times today. He denies use of NSAID's or blood thinners. What questions would be
important to ask to further differentiate your diagnosis? - correct ans:All options are appropriate
Rationale: All the above, these questions would help determine if this bleed was associated with a
potential diverticular bleed (typically painless), painful bowel movement associated with IBD
(UC/Crohn's), and changes in bowel habit/colonoscopy risk for malignancy.
Anorexia nervosa occurs most commonly in which of the following? - correct ans:High-level athletes
A 29-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain, he has a history of alcohol abuse, and
recurrent pancreatitis. Patient's Lipase is elevated, and he has nausea and vomiting as well. Abdominal
CT shows inflammatory changes around the pancreas. What is the most important intervention to
consider in the acute phase? - correct ans:Admit to the hospital for fluid resuscitation to avoid
hypovolemic state, and reduce risk of developing further complications
An adult female returns to the clinic with severe profuse watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and cramping
after treatment with Cipro x 10 days. WBC is 12.5, stool culture is positive for c diff. The NP would
recommend: - correct ans:Metronidazole 500 tid for 10-14 d
Rationale: Treatment of C Diff should include metronidazole (Flagyl) or PO vancomycin.
An adult presents with increasing abdominal girth. The nurse practitioner suspects ascites. Which finding
on physical exam would confirm the suspicion of ascites? - correct ans:Dullness shifts to the more
dependent side
Rationale: In the fluid wave test for ascites, dullness shifts to the more dependent side. The impulse of
the wave should be easily palpable.
A 45-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Endoscopy
reveals villous atrophy of the small intestine. What is the most appropriate initial management? -
correct ans:Gluten-free diet
