1|Page SUCCESS!!!
, APEA PRE-PREDICTOR 2025/2026 (Actual Exam) TEST
BANK 850+ Questions and Correct Detailed Answers with
Rationales | Complete Test Guide A+ Grade
MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. A 65-year-old male with 40-pack-year history presents with chronic cough and dyspnea. PFT shows FEV1/FVC
ratio of 0.62. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
A. Restrictive lung disease
B. COPD
C. Asthma
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Answer: B
An FEV1/FVC ratio less than 0.70 indicates airflow obstruction, which is diagnostic for COPD; restrictive diseases
show reduced FVC with normal or increased ratio.
2. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. What is the appropriate management?
A. Aspirin 81 mg daily
B. No anticoagulation
C. Oral anticoagulation
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy
Answer: C
A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women warrants oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC) to reduce
stroke risk significantly.
3. A 75-year-old with hypertension and osteoporosis needs a new antihypertensive. Which agent provides a
secondary benefit for bone health?
A. Amlodipine
B. Lisinopril
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Metoprolol
Answer: C
2|Page SUCCESS!!!
,Thiazide diuretics reduce urinary calcium excretion, which can increase bone mineral density and slow
osteoporosis progression.
4. An 85-year-old female has an average BP of 168/72 mmHg with no other comorbidities. What is first-line
therapy?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Long-acting CCB
D. Loop diuretic
Answer: C
Isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly is first-line treated with long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel
blockers like amlodipine.
5. A 78-year-old has an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm measured at 5.5 cm. Which statement is
correct?
A. Surgery will not improve survival
B. Ultrasound every 3 years is appropriate
C. Surgery will improve 5-year survival
D. Immediate discharge with no follow-up
Answer: C
AAA ≥5.5 cm warrants surgical repair because rupture risk exceeds perioperative mortality, and repair
significantly improves survival.
6. A 14-year-old with bronchitis returns with fever 103°F, pleuritic chest pain, and green sputum. Which finding
is expected?
A. Right lower lobe crackles
B. Decreased fremitus
C. Bilateral wheezing
D. Normal percussion
Answer: A
Progression to pneumonia with consolidation produces focal crackles that do not clear with coughing; fremitus
is increased, not decreased.
3|Page SUCCESS!!!
, 7. A child presents with barking cough, stridor, and respiratory distress. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Croup
C. Asthma
D. Bronchiolitis
Answer: B
A barking cough is classic for croup (laryngotracheobronchitis), typically caused by parainfluenza virus;
epiglottitis presents with drooling and toxic appearance.
8. A patient presents with persistent cough, night sweats, weight loss, and upper lobe infiltrates. Most likely
diagnosis?
A. Viral pneumonia
B. Lung cancer
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: C
Upper lobe infiltrates with constitutional symptoms are highly suggestive of pulmonary tuberculosis; airborne
precautions are required.
9. Office spirometry with albuterol confirms asthma because it demonstrates:
A. Oxygen saturation levels
B. Reversible airway obstruction
C. Chronic CO2 retention
D. Restrictive pattern
Answer: B
A positive bronchodilator response (≥12% and ≥200 mL increase in FEV1) confirms asthma by demonstrating
reversible obstruction.
10. A 1-month-old presents with recurrent diarrhea, screaming, drawing up legs, followed by lethargy. Exam
shows sausage-like mass in RUQ. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Intussusception
B. Volvulus
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
, APEA PRE-PREDICTOR 2025/2026 (Actual Exam) TEST
BANK 850+ Questions and Correct Detailed Answers with
Rationales | Complete Test Guide A+ Grade
MULTIPLE CHOICES
1. A 65-year-old male with 40-pack-year history presents with chronic cough and dyspnea. PFT shows FEV1/FVC
ratio of 0.62. Which diagnosis is most consistent?
A. Restrictive lung disease
B. COPD
C. Asthma
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
Answer: B
An FEV1/FVC ratio less than 0.70 indicates airflow obstruction, which is diagnostic for COPD; restrictive diseases
show reduced FVC with normal or increased ratio.
2. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. What is the appropriate management?
A. Aspirin 81 mg daily
B. No anticoagulation
C. Oral anticoagulation
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy
Answer: C
A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women warrants oral anticoagulation (warfarin or DOAC) to reduce
stroke risk significantly.
3. A 75-year-old with hypertension and osteoporosis needs a new antihypertensive. Which agent provides a
secondary benefit for bone health?
A. Amlodipine
B. Lisinopril
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Metoprolol
Answer: C
2|Page SUCCESS!!!
,Thiazide diuretics reduce urinary calcium excretion, which can increase bone mineral density and slow
osteoporosis progression.
4. An 85-year-old female has an average BP of 168/72 mmHg with no other comorbidities. What is first-line
therapy?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Long-acting CCB
D. Loop diuretic
Answer: C
Isolated systolic hypertension in the elderly is first-line treated with long-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel
blockers like amlodipine.
5. A 78-year-old has an asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm measured at 5.5 cm. Which statement is
correct?
A. Surgery will not improve survival
B. Ultrasound every 3 years is appropriate
C. Surgery will improve 5-year survival
D. Immediate discharge with no follow-up
Answer: C
AAA ≥5.5 cm warrants surgical repair because rupture risk exceeds perioperative mortality, and repair
significantly improves survival.
6. A 14-year-old with bronchitis returns with fever 103°F, pleuritic chest pain, and green sputum. Which finding
is expected?
A. Right lower lobe crackles
B. Decreased fremitus
C. Bilateral wheezing
D. Normal percussion
Answer: A
Progression to pneumonia with consolidation produces focal crackles that do not clear with coughing; fremitus
is increased, not decreased.
3|Page SUCCESS!!!
, 7. A child presents with barking cough, stridor, and respiratory distress. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Croup
C. Asthma
D. Bronchiolitis
Answer: B
A barking cough is classic for croup (laryngotracheobronchitis), typically caused by parainfluenza virus;
epiglottitis presents with drooling and toxic appearance.
8. A patient presents with persistent cough, night sweats, weight loss, and upper lobe infiltrates. Most likely
diagnosis?
A. Viral pneumonia
B. Lung cancer
C. Tuberculosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: C
Upper lobe infiltrates with constitutional symptoms are highly suggestive of pulmonary tuberculosis; airborne
precautions are required.
9. Office spirometry with albuterol confirms asthma because it demonstrates:
A. Oxygen saturation levels
B. Reversible airway obstruction
C. Chronic CO2 retention
D. Restrictive pattern
Answer: B
A positive bronchodilator response (≥12% and ≥200 mL increase in FEV1) confirms asthma by demonstrating
reversible obstruction.
10. A 1-month-old presents with recurrent diarrhea, screaming, drawing up legs, followed by lethargy. Exam
shows sausage-like mass in RUQ. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Intussusception
B. Volvulus
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
