COURSE TITLE: Pharmacology — HESI Comprehensive DATE ALLOWED
Examination (Set 2) —/—/ 120
INSTRUCTOR: — —— Minutes
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Pharmacology — HESI
Comprehensive Examination — Anti-infectives, Cardiovascular, CNS & Special
Populations
ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY
A MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (200 Marks)
Choose the single best answer for each question unless "Select All That Apply" is indicated. Write the correct letter(s) in the
space provided.
1. A client taking oral tetracycline reports gastrointestinal upset. Which snack should the
nurse instruct the client to take with the tetracycline?
A. Fruit-flavoured yogurt
B. Toasted wheat bread and jelly
C. Cold cereal with skim milk
D. Cheese and crackers
✦ CORRECT ANSWER: B — Toasted wheat bread and jelly.
Tetracyclines chelate with divalent and trivalent cations — calcium (yogurt, milk, cheese), iron, magnesium,
aluminum — forming insoluble complexes that are not absorbed. This significantly reduces bioavailability. The
client must avoid dairy products, antacids, and iron supplements within 2 hours of the dose. Toasted wheat bread
and jelly contain no significant calcium or other chelating minerals and can be taken safely with tetracycline to
reduce GI upset. The food should be non-dairy and low in mineral content.
,2. The nurse assesses the eyes of a client who just received mydriatic eye drops. Which
physiological function of the eye will NOT respond during the therapeutic period after
administration?
A. Refraction
B. Eye convergence
C. Pupillary constriction
D. Accommodation
✦ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Pupillary constriction.
Mydriatic eye drops (such as atropine, tropicamide, cyclopentolate) work by blocking the muscarinic receptors of
the iris sphincter muscle, paralysing the pupil in a dilated state. During the therapeutic period, the pupil cannot
constrict in response to light (loss of direct and consensual light reflex). This also impairs accommodation (near
vision becomes blurry). Refraction is tested during cycloplegia (ciliary muscle paralysis). Convergence is an
extraocular movement controlled by the medial rectus and oculomotor nerve, which is not affected by topical
anticholinergic mydriatics.
3. An older male client is being discharged after an MI and receives a new prescription for
atenolol. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching
plan?
A. Avoid intake of alcoholic beverages.
B. Avoid driving or operating machinery.
C. Take a missed dose as soon as possible.
D. Stand slowly when getting up from bed.
✦ CORRECT ANSWER: D — Stand slowly when getting up from bed.
Atenolol is a cardioselective beta-1 blocker that reduces heart rate and myocardial contractility. A critical adverse
effect — especially in older adults — is orthostatic hypotension. The client must be taught to change positions
slowly (lying to sitting, sitting to standing) to prevent dizziness, syncope, and falls. This is the most important safety
instruction. While avoiding alcohol (which can compound hypotensive effects) and not doubling missed doses are
also important, fall prevention in an older adult post-MI is the priority safety concern.
, 4. Vancomycin 500 mg IV every 12 hours is prescribed for a client with MRSA. Peak and
trough levels are within therapeutic range, but serum creatinine is 4.5 mg/dL. Which
action should the nurse implement?
A. Withhold the next scheduled dose and contact the healthcare provider.
B. Monitor laboratory values until all prescribed doses have been given.
C. Administer the next dose and flag the results for the healthcare provider.
D. Insert a second IV catheter for administration of emergency IV fluids.
✦ CORRECT ANSWER: A — Withhold the next scheduled dose and contact the healthcare provider.
A serum creatinine of 4.5 mg/dL (normal: 0.6–1.2 mg/dL) indicates severe acute kidney injury. Vancomycin is
primarily renally excreted and is nephrotoxic — continuing administration in the setting of acute renal impairment
can cause further kidney damage and vancomycin accumulation leading to ototoxicity. Even though current peak
and trough levels are therapeutic, the rapidly declining renal function means the drug will accumulate with the next
dose. The nurse must withhold the dose, notify the provider, and expect a vancomycin level recheck, dose
adjustment, or switch to a non-nephrotoxic alternative.
5. After taking orlistat for one week, a female client tells the home health nurse she is
experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and flatus. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Instruct the client to increase her intake of saturated fats over the next week.
B. Obtain a stool specimen to evaluate for occult blood and fat content.
C. Ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days.
D. Advise the client to stop taking the drug and contact her healthcare provider.
✦ CORRECT ANSWER: C — Ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last several days.
Orlistat works by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipases, preventing the absorption of approximately 30% of
ingested dietary fat. The undigested fat is excreted in the stool, causing oily, fatty stools and flatus — especially
when the client consumes a high-fat meal. The nurse should first assess the client's dietary intake because the
severity of this side effect is directly proportional to dietary fat consumption. If the client is eating high-fat foods,
education about a low-fat diet may resolve the problem. Increasing saturated fat (A) would worsen it.
Discontinuation may not be necessary if dietary modification resolves the symptoms.