APEA Predictor Exam Questions & Answers Latest
2024/2025 (Complete Solution A+)
Question 1
Which cranial nerve is being assessed when the provider asks the patient to shrug their
shoulders against resistance?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XI (Spinal Accessory)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: C
Rationale: CN XI (Spinal Accessory) innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
muscles. Shrugging shoulders tests the trapezius, while turning the head against
resistance tests the sternocleidomastoid.
Question 2
A nurse practitioner notes a soft, mid-systolic murmur heard best at the second right
intercostal space which radiates to the neck. This most likely represents:
A. Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Pulmonic regurgitation
D. Mitral stenosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Aortic stenosis typically presents as a systolic ejection murmur at the right
upper sternal border (2nd ICS) with radiation to the carotid arteries.
Question 3
A patient with no significant medical history has varicose veins. She complains of
"aching legs." The intervention that will provide the greatest relief for her complaint is
to:
A. Prescribe compression stockings
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B. Elevate her legs periodically
C. Recommend surgical consultation
D. Prescribe diuretics
Answer: B
Rationale: Elevating her legs periodically will facilitate venous return and provide the
greatest relief. Support stockings prolong standing tolerance but do not provide relief
after aching begins.
Question 4
Koplik's spots are associated with:
A. Poxvirus infections
B. Measles
C. Kawasaki's disease
D. Reye's syndrome
Answer: B
Rationale: Measles (rubeola) presents with fever over 101°F, coryza, cough, conjunctivitis,
rash, and Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa.
Question 5
At what level of prevention would you classify lung cancer screening with low-dose CT?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primordial prevention
Answer: B
Rationale: Screening for lung cancer is secondary prevention—early detection of disease
in asymptomatic individuals.
Question 6
What is the most common cause of Cushing's syndrome?
A. Adrenal tumor
B. Pituitary adenoma
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C. Administration of glucocorticoids
D. Ectopic ACTH production
Answer: C
Rationale: Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome from exogenous glucocorticoid administration
is the most common type and is reversible upon discontinuation.
Question 7
A test called visual fields by confrontation is used to evaluate for:
A. Peripheral vision
B. Central vision
C. Visual acuity
D. Accommodation
Answer: A
Rationale: Visual field by confrontation testing assesses peripheral vision, not central
vision or visual acuity.
Question 8
All of the following are classified as activities of daily living (ADLs) EXCEPT:
A. Ability to feed self
B. Ability to manage bladder and bowel elimination
C. Personal hygiene and grooming
D. Grocery shopping
Answer: D
Rationale: Basic ADLs include feeding, toileting, grooming, bathing, dressing,
transferring, and continence. Grocery shopping is an Instrumental ADL (IADL).
Question 9
The mother of a 12-month-old infant reports that her child had a high fever for several
days, which spontaneously resolved. After the fever resolved, the child developed a
maculopapular rash. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fifth Disease (erythema infectiosum)
B. Roseola infantum (exanthema subitum)
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C. Varicella
D. Infantile maculopapular rashes
Answer: B
Rationale: This classic presentation—high fever that abruptly ends followed by rash—is
hallmark for roseola infantum.
Question 10
A 70-year-old male patient complains of a bright red-colored spot in his left eye for 2
days. He denies eye pain, visual changes, or headaches. He has a new onset of cough
from a recent viral URI. The only medicine he takes is aspirin daily. Which is most likely?
A. Corneal abrasion
B. Acute bacterial conjunctivitis
C. Acute uveitis
D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Answer: D
Rationale: A bright red, sharply defined area on the white of the eye after coughing or
straining is classic for subconjunctival hemorrhage.
Question 11
A woman is being evaluated for complaints of dyspareunia. Microscopy reveals a large
number of atrophic squamous epithelial cells. Vaginal pH is 4.0. There are very few
leukocytes and no RBCs. Which is most likely?
A. Atrophic vaginitis
B. Bacterial Vaginosis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. This is a normal finding
Answer: A
Rationale: Dyspareunia, atrophic cells, and normal pH (4.0-4.5) point to atrophic vaginitis
from low estrogen levels.
Question 12
Which is the most common type of skin malignancy?
A. Squamous cell cancer