Virtual ATI Green Light Comprehensive Predictor Practice Questions and
Answers Updated 2026 | Complete ATI Comprehensive Predictor & NCLEX
Readiness Study Guide with Verified Questions, Detailed Rationales,
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics,
Mental Health, Fundamentals, Leadership & Management, Community
Health & NGN Clinical Judgment Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has been prescribed
furosemide. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the
nurse?
A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Urine output of 60 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium excretion. A potassium
level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening
dysrhythmias and requires immediate notification of the provider and replacement.
Options A, C, and D are expected or acceptable findings in a client receiving diuretic
therapy.
Question 2: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
admitted with an exacerbation. Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate
for this client?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Simple face mask at 6 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 24% FiO2
D. Nasal cannula at 4 L/min
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Venturi mask at 24% FiO2
Rationale: Clients with COPD often rely on hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing. High
concentrations of oxygen can suppress this drive, leading to respiratory arrest. A Venturi
mask delivers a precise, low concentration of oxygen, making it the safest choice. High-
flow devices like non-rebreathers or high-liter nasal cannulas pose a risk of CO2
retention.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will rotate injection sites within the same anatomical area."
B. "I will store my unopened insulin in the refrigerator."
C. "I will shake the NPH insulin vial vigorously before drawing it up."
D. "I will inject rapid-acting insulin 15 minutes before meals."
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will shake the NPH insulin vial vigorously before drawing it
up."
Rationale: Insulin vials should be rolled gently between the palms to mix the
suspension; vigorous shaking can damage the insulin molecules and create air
bubbles, affecting dosage accuracy. The other statements reflect correct techniques for
insulin administration and storage.
Question 4: A postoperative client is experiencing sudden shortness of breath and
chest pain. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Administer prescribed morphine sulfate.
B. Elevate the head of the bed and apply oxygen.
C. Prepare for a ventilation-perfusion scan.
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Elevate the head of the bed and apply oxygen.
Rationale: The priority in any emergency situation involving respiratory distress is to
maintain airway and breathing. Elevating the head of the bed facilitates lung expansion,
and oxygen improves oxygenation. While notifying the provider and preparing for
diagnostics are important, they follow immediate stabilization.
Question 5: A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and
confused. The blood glucose level is 50 mg/dL. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM.
B. Provide 4 ounces of orange juice.
C. Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
D. Call the healthcare provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide 4 ounces of orange juice.
Rationale: The client is conscious and able to swallow, so the fastest way to raise blood
glucose is to administer fast-acting carbohydrates orally. Glucagon is reserved for
clients who are unconscious or unable to swallow. Rechecking glucose delays
treatment, and calling the provider is not the immediate priority when a simple
intervention can resolve the hypoglycemia.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which observation
indicates that the stoma is healthy?
A. The stoma is pale pink.
B. The stoma is beefy red and moist.
C. The stoma is dark purple.
D. The stoma is dry and black.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The stoma is beefy red and moist.
,Rationale: A healthy stoma should be beefy red and moist, indicating adequate blood
supply. A pale stoma may indicate anemia, while a dark purple, black, or dry stoma
indicates ischemia or necrosis, which is a medical emergency.
Question 7: A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory
value is most critical for the nurse to monitor?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Blood glucose
C. White blood cell count
D. Platelet count
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Blood glucose
Rationale: TPN solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose, placing the client at
high risk for hyperglycemia. Frequent monitoring of blood glucose is essential to prevent
complications such as osmotic diuresis and infection. While other labs are important,
glucose management is the primary concern specific to TPN therapy.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis. Which finding
is characteristic of this condition?
A. Positive Babinski reflex
B. Nuchal rigidity
C. Hypotension
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nuchal rigidity
Rationale: Nuchal rigidity, or stiffness of the neck, is a classic sign of meningeal
irritation associated with meningitis. Other signs include positive Kernig’s and
Brudzinski’s signs. Babinski reflex is related to upper motor neuron lesions, while
hypotension and bradycardia are not primary indicators of meningitis.
Question 9: A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect
should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Swelling of the lips and tongue
C. Dizziness upon standing
D. Mild headache
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Swelling of the lips and tongue
Rationale: Angioedema, characterized by swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat, is
a rare but life-threatening side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. It requires
immediate medical attention due to the risk of airway obstruction. A dry cough is a
common, non-life-threatening side effect.
, Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-
seal drainage system. The water in the water-seal chamber is tidaling. What does
this indicate?
A. The system is functioning properly.
B. There is an air leak in the system.
C. The lung has fully re-expanded.
D. The tubing is kinked.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. The system is functioning properly.
Rationale: Tidaling, or the rise and fall of the water level in the water-seal chamber with
respiration, indicates that the chest tube is patent and the system is working correctly.
Continuous bubbling would indicate an air leak, and absence of tidaling may indicate
lung re-expansion or occlusion.
Question 11: A client with renal failure is prescribed sevelamer. What is the primary
purpose of this medication?
A. To lower blood pressure
B. To bind phosphate in the gut
C. To increase urine output
D. To treat anemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To bind phosphate in the gut
Rationale: Sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in clients with chronic kidney disease
to control hyperphosphatemia. It binds dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract,
preventing its absorption. It does not affect blood pressure, urine output, or anemia
directly.
Question 12: A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure.
The apical pulse is 58 beats per minute. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Administer half the dose.
D. Check the blood pressure before administering.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
Rationale: Digoxin slows the heart rate. It is generally withheld if the apical pulse is
below 60 beats per minute in adults to prevent severe bradycardia and toxicity. The
nurse should hold the dose and consult the provider for further instructions.
Question 13: A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with melena.
What does this finding suggest?
A. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
Answers Updated 2026 | Complete ATI Comprehensive Predictor & NCLEX
Readiness Study Guide with Verified Questions, Detailed Rationales,
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics,
Mental Health, Fundamentals, Leadership & Management, Community
Health & NGN Clinical Judgment Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has been prescribed
furosemide. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the
nurse?
A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Urine output of 60 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium excretion. A potassium
level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening
dysrhythmias and requires immediate notification of the provider and replacement.
Options A, C, and D are expected or acceptable findings in a client receiving diuretic
therapy.
Question 2: A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
admitted with an exacerbation. Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate
for this client?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Simple face mask at 6 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 24% FiO2
D. Nasal cannula at 4 L/min
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Venturi mask at 24% FiO2
Rationale: Clients with COPD often rely on hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing. High
concentrations of oxygen can suppress this drive, leading to respiratory arrest. A Venturi
mask delivers a precise, low concentration of oxygen, making it the safest choice. High-
flow devices like non-rebreathers or high-liter nasal cannulas pose a risk of CO2
retention.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will rotate injection sites within the same anatomical area."
B. "I will store my unopened insulin in the refrigerator."
C. "I will shake the NPH insulin vial vigorously before drawing it up."
D. "I will inject rapid-acting insulin 15 minutes before meals."
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will shake the NPH insulin vial vigorously before drawing it
up."
Rationale: Insulin vials should be rolled gently between the palms to mix the
suspension; vigorous shaking can damage the insulin molecules and create air
bubbles, affecting dosage accuracy. The other statements reflect correct techniques for
insulin administration and storage.
Question 4: A postoperative client is experiencing sudden shortness of breath and
chest pain. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. What is the priority nursing
action?
A. Administer prescribed morphine sulfate.
B. Elevate the head of the bed and apply oxygen.
C. Prepare for a ventilation-perfusion scan.
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Elevate the head of the bed and apply oxygen.
Rationale: The priority in any emergency situation involving respiratory distress is to
maintain airway and breathing. Elevating the head of the bed facilitates lung expansion,
and oxygen improves oxygenation. While notifying the provider and preparing for
diagnostics are important, they follow immediate stabilization.
Question 5: A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, sweaty, and
confused. The blood glucose level is 50 mg/dL. What is the nurse's first action?
A. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM.
B. Provide 4 ounces of orange juice.
C. Recheck the blood glucose in 15 minutes.
D. Call the healthcare provider.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide 4 ounces of orange juice.
Rationale: The client is conscious and able to swallow, so the fastest way to raise blood
glucose is to administer fast-acting carbohydrates orally. Glucagon is reserved for
clients who are unconscious or unable to swallow. Rechecking glucose delays
treatment, and calling the provider is not the immediate priority when a simple
intervention can resolve the hypoglycemia.
Question 6: A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which observation
indicates that the stoma is healthy?
A. The stoma is pale pink.
B. The stoma is beefy red and moist.
C. The stoma is dark purple.
D. The stoma is dry and black.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. The stoma is beefy red and moist.
,Rationale: A healthy stoma should be beefy red and moist, indicating adequate blood
supply. A pale stoma may indicate anemia, while a dark purple, black, or dry stoma
indicates ischemia or necrosis, which is a medical emergency.
Question 7: A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory
value is most critical for the nurse to monitor?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Blood glucose
C. White blood cell count
D. Platelet count
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Blood glucose
Rationale: TPN solutions contain high concentrations of dextrose, placing the client at
high risk for hyperglycemia. Frequent monitoring of blood glucose is essential to prevent
complications such as osmotic diuresis and infection. While other labs are important,
glucose management is the primary concern specific to TPN therapy.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis. Which finding
is characteristic of this condition?
A. Positive Babinski reflex
B. Nuchal rigidity
C. Hypotension
D. Bradycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nuchal rigidity
Rationale: Nuchal rigidity, or stiffness of the neck, is a classic sign of meningeal
irritation associated with meningitis. Other signs include positive Kernig’s and
Brudzinski’s signs. Babinski reflex is related to upper motor neuron lesions, while
hypotension and bradycardia are not primary indicators of meningitis.
Question 9: A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which side effect
should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Swelling of the lips and tongue
C. Dizziness upon standing
D. Mild headache
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Swelling of the lips and tongue
Rationale: Angioedema, characterized by swelling of the face, lips, tongue, or throat, is
a rare but life-threatening side effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. It requires
immediate medical attention due to the risk of airway obstruction. A dry cough is a
common, non-life-threatening side effect.
, Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-
seal drainage system. The water in the water-seal chamber is tidaling. What does
this indicate?
A. The system is functioning properly.
B. There is an air leak in the system.
C. The lung has fully re-expanded.
D. The tubing is kinked.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. The system is functioning properly.
Rationale: Tidaling, or the rise and fall of the water level in the water-seal chamber with
respiration, indicates that the chest tube is patent and the system is working correctly.
Continuous bubbling would indicate an air leak, and absence of tidaling may indicate
lung re-expansion or occlusion.
Question 11: A client with renal failure is prescribed sevelamer. What is the primary
purpose of this medication?
A. To lower blood pressure
B. To bind phosphate in the gut
C. To increase urine output
D. To treat anemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. To bind phosphate in the gut
Rationale: Sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in clients with chronic kidney disease
to control hyperphosphatemia. It binds dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract,
preventing its absorption. It does not affect blood pressure, urine output, or anemia
directly.
Question 12: A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure.
The apical pulse is 58 beats per minute. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
C. Administer half the dose.
D. Check the blood pressure before administering.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
Rationale: Digoxin slows the heart rate. It is generally withheld if the apical pulse is
below 60 beats per minute in adults to prevent severe bradycardia and toxicity. The
nurse should hold the dose and consult the provider for further instructions.
Question 13: A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with melena.
What does this finding suggest?
A. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
