APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank | 2025/2026 Latest Edition – 150 Questions Real Exam-Based Questions and Verified Answers | 100% Accuracy

APEA 3P Actual Exam Test Bank |
2025/2026 Latest Edition – 150 Questions
Real Exam-Based Questions and Verified
Answers | 100% Accuracy
Covers Pharmacology, Pathophysiology, and Physical Assessment (3Ps)


Question 1
A 37-year-old female with hypothyroidism complains of poor concentration and
fatigue. What should the NP initially do?
A) Order an MRI
B) Review thyroid function tests
C) Prescribe antidepressants
D) Recommend a sleep study
Rationale: Hypothyroidism can cause fatigue and poor concentration; reviewing
thyroid function tests assesses treatment efficacy.


Question 2
A patient with atrial fibrillation needs anticoagulation. What lab value should be
monitored for warfarin therapy?
A) Blood glucose
B) INR
C) Hemoglobin
D) Creatinine
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin efficacy in preventing thromboembolism.


Question 3
A 35-year-old with mitral valve prolapse is scheduled for dental cleaning. What
should the NP recommend?

,A) No prophylaxis
B) Antibiotic prophylaxis
C) Aspirin pre-procedure
D) Sedation
Rationale: Antibiotic prophylaxis prevents infective endocarditis in at-risk
patients.


Question 4
A patient is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What adverse effect should
the NP monitor?
A) Weight gain
B) Lactic acidosis
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis, especially in renal impairment.


Question 5
A patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. What lab value should be
monitored?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Potassium and creatinine
C) Liver enzymes
D) Platelet count
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia and acute kidney injury.


Question 6
A patient is prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which side effect is most common?
A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Sedation

,Rationale: Beta-agonists cause tachycardia as a common side effect.


Question 7
A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What should the NP do?
A) Increase warfarin dose
B) Hold warfarin and consider vitamin K
C) Continue same dose
D) Add aspirin
Rationale: INR >4.0 increases bleeding risk; holding warfarin and vitamin K may
be indicated.


Question 8
A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What electrolyte imbalance is
most concerning?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics cause potassium wasting, leading to hypokalemia.


Question 9
A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, vomiting, and visual changes. What is
the likely cause?
A) Drug allergy
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Viral gastroenteritis
D) Withdrawal
Rationale: Nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (yellow-green halos) are
classic digoxin toxicity signs.

, Question 10
What medication is first-line for acute anaphylaxis?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Epinephrine
C) Albuterol
D) Methylprednisolone
Rationale: Epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis; other medications are
adjunctive.


Question 11
A patient with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What lab test is essential for
monitoring?
A) Liver function
B) Lithium level
C) CBC
D) Thyroid function only
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index; levels must be monitored
regularly.


Question 12
A patient on sertraline reports sexual dysfunction. What is the best next step?
A) Discontinue sertraline immediately
B) Consider switching to bupropion
C) Increase sertraline dose
D) Add trazodone
Rationale: Bupropion has lower risk of sexual side effects than SSRIs.


Question 13
A patient with gout is prescribed allopurinol. When should it be started after an
acute flare?
A) Immediately