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ATI RN 2026 Fundamentals Proctored Exam: HIGH-STAKES EXIT EXAM: UPDATED QUESTION POOL & VERIFIED KEYS ACE THE FINAL: COMPLETE 3-VERSION TEST BANK WITH 100% ACCURACY

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Q: A nurse manager of a med-surg unit is assigning care responsibilities for the oncoming shift. A client is awaiting transfer back to the unit from the PACU following thoracic surgery. To which staff member should the nurse assign this client? • A) Charge nurse • B) Registered Nurse (RN) • C) Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN) • D) Assistive Personnel (AP) Correct Answer: B) RN Rationale: A client returning from major surgery (such as thoracic surgery) is considered unstable or potentially unstable and requires comprehensive physical assessments, complex clinical decision-making, and the establishment of a nursing plan of care. According to delegation guidelines, these responsibilities cannot be delegated to an LPN or AP and must be performed by an RN. 2. Intentional Torts: Assault Q: A nurse observes an Assistive Personnel (AP) reprimanding a client for not using the urinal properly. The AP tells him she will put a diaper on him if he does not use the urinal more carefully next time. Which of the following torts is the AP committing? • A) Assault • B) Battery • C) False imprisonment • D) Invasion of privacy Correct Answer: A) Assault Rationale: Assault is an intentional tort that occurs when a person's words or actions create a clear, imminent threat or reasonable apprehension of unwanted, harmful, or offensive physical contact. Because the AP is verbally threatening the client with humiliating restrictions, it constitutes assault. Battery would require actual, unauthorized physical contact. 3. Intentional Torts: False Imprisonment via Chemical Restraint Q: An adult client who is competent tells the nurse that he is thinking about leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA). The nurse believes that this is not in the client's best interest, so she administers a PRN sedative medication that the client has not requested along with his usual medications. Which of the following torts has the nurse committed? • A) Assault • B) False imprisonment • C) Negligence • D) Breach of confidentiality Correct Answer: B) False imprisonment Rationale: Administering an unrequested sedative medication to an alert, legally competent individual for the sole purpose of restricting their freedom of movement or preventing them from leaving the facility constitutes a chemical restraint. Doing so without clinical justification or client consent fulfills the legal definition of false imprisonment. 4. Understanding Advance Directives Q: A client who will undergo neurosurgery the following week tells the nurse in the surgeon's office that he will prepare his advance directives before he goes to the hospital. Which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse that he understands advance directives? • A) "I'd rather have my brother make decisions for me, but I know it has to be my wife." • B) "I know they won't go ahead with the surgery unless I prepare these forms." • C) "I plan to write that I don't want them to keep me on a breathing machine." • D) "I will get my regular doctor to approve my plan before I hand it in at the hospital." Correct Answer: C) "I plan to write that I don't want them to keep me on a breathing machine." Rationale: Advance directives allow competent individuals to explicitly state their personal choices regarding life-sustaining medical interventions (such as mechanical ventilation) in the event that they become unable to make decisions for themselves. Advance directives are voluntary (not required for surgery), can designate any surrogate proxy, and do not require a physician's approval to be valid. 5. Nursing Role in Informed Consent Q: A client is about to undergo an elective surgical procedure. Which of the following actions are appropriate for the nurse who is providing preoperative care regarding informed consent? (Select all that apply.) * A) Make sure the surgeon obtained the client's consent • B) Witness the client's signature on the consent form • C) Explain the risks and benefits of the procedure • D) Describe the consequences of choosing not to have the surgery • E) Tell the client about alternatives to having the surgery Correct Answers: A) and B) Rationale: The nurse's legal role in informed consent is strictly limited to serving as a witness to the client's signature, confirming the client appears competent, and verifying that the surgeon has already discussed the procedure. Explaining risks, benefits, consequences of refusal, and alternative therapies (C, D, E) is the non-delegable duty of the performing surgeon. 6. Reporting Impaired Coworkers Q: A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, she found the nurse asleep in a chair in the break room when she was not on break. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? • A) Remind the nurse that safe client care is a priority on the unit • B) Ask others on the team whether they have observed the same behavior • C) Report observations to the nurse manager on the unit • D) Conclude that her coworker's fatigue is not her problem to solve Correct Answer: C) Report observations to the nurse manager on the unit Rationale: Every nurse has a strict professional, ethical, and legal obligation to safeguard patients from harm. If a colleague displays signs of impairment, extreme fatigue, or substance abuse that could compromise clinical safety, the observations must be reported immediately up the chain of command to the unit manager. 7. Change-of-Shift Report Components Q: A nurse is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the report? • A) The client's total intake and output for the previous shift • B) The client's blood pressure from the previous day • C) A bone scan that is scheduled for today • D) The complete medication routine from the medication administration record Correct Answer: C) A bone scan that is scheduled for today Rationale: A change-of-shift report should focus on current, pertinent, and upcoming care details. Noting a scheduled diagnostic procedure like a bone scan is critical because the oncoming shift must modify care routines, prepare the client, or coordinate transportation off the unit. Historical data (B) or standard medication schedules (D) are already accessible in the medical record. 8. Documentation of Unwitnessed Client Events Q: A nurse enters a client's room and finds him sitting in his chair. He states, "I fell in the shower, but I got myself back up and into my chair." How should the nurse document this in the client's chart? • A) The client fell in the shower. • B) The client states he fell in the shower and was able to get himself back into his chair. • C) The nurse should not document this info because she did not witness the fall. • D) The client fell in the shower and is now resting comfortably. Correct Answer: B) The client states he fell in the shower and was able to get himself back into his chair. Rationale: When documenting an event that was not directly witnessed by the medical staff, the nurse must record the information as subjective data, using direct quotes or clear attributions to the client's statements. Documenting it as an absolute objective fact (A, D) when unwitnessed is inaccurate. All clinically significant events must be recorded (C). 9. Legal Guidelines for Medical Documentation Q: A nursing instructor is reviewing medical documentation guidelines with a group of nursing students. Which of the following legal rules should they follow when entering records into a client's chart? (Select all that apply.) * A) Cover errors with correction fluid, and write in the correct info • B) Put the date and time on all entries • C) Document objective data, leaving out personal opinions • D) Use as many abbreviations as possible • E) Wait until the end of the shift to document all entries at once Correct Answers: B) and C) Rationale: Accurate medical charts require clear dating and timing of all entries (B) and strictly factual, objective data devoid of speculative personal opinions (C). Correction fluid (A) is illegal as it alters a medical record; errors should have a single line drawn through them. Abbreviations should be restricted to approved lists to avoid mistakes (D), and documentation should happen progressively rather than delayed until the end of a shift (E).

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Instelling
Mental Health
Vak
Mental health

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2026 –
ACTUAL EXAM TESTBANK - 3 VERSIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS FINAL EXAM BUNDLE
2026/2027 (REAL EXAM QUESTIONS)
1. Cirrhosis due to Alcohol Use Disorder

Q: A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis of the liver due to alcohol use disorder. Which
of the following findings should the nurse suspect?

• A) Acrocyanosis

• B) Arrhythmias

• C) Ascites

• D) Weight gain

Correct Answer: C) Ascites

Rationale: Ascites is a common complication of cirrhosis due to portal hypertension and low
serum albumin levels, causing fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity.

2. Binge-Eating Disorder

Q: A nurse is collecting data from a client who has binge-eating disorder. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?

• A) Amenorrhea

• B) Abdominal pain

• C) Restricted caloric intake

• D) Frequent use of laxatives

Correct Answer: B) Abdominal pain

Rationale: Clients with binge-eating disorder often experience abdominal pain or discomfort
after consuming large amounts of food, but typically do not use compensatory behaviors like
laxatives.

3. Anorexia Nervosa

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Q: A nurse is collecting admission data for a client who has anorexia nervosa and has recently
lost significant weight. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A) Flushed extremities

• B) Hyperkalemia

• C) Loose stools

• D) Amenorrhea

Correct Answer: D) Amenorrhea

Rationale: Amenorrhea is a hallmark symptom of anorexia nervosa due to low body fat and
hormonal disruptions.

4. Alcohol Use Disorder - Maintenance Treatment

Q: A nurse is caring for a client with alcohol use disorder. After withdrawal, which of the
following medications should the nurse expect to administer during maintenance therapy?

• A) Methadone

• B) Disulfiram

• C) Chlordiazepoxide

• D) Naloxone

Correct Answer: B) Disulfiram

Rationale: Disulfiram is used as a deterrent in the maintenance phase of alcohol use disorder by
causing highly unpleasant physical effects when alcohol is consumed.

5. PTSD Following Sexual Assault

Q: A nurse is collecting data from a client who has PTSD due to a sexual assault 3 months ago.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A) Increased hours of sleep

• B) Repeatedly talking about the assault

• C) Dreams about the assault

• D) Decreased responsiveness to stimuli

Correct Answer: C) Dreams about the assault

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Rationale: Recurrent, distressing dreams related to the trauma are a classic intrusive symptom
of PTSD.

6. Legal Aspects of Involuntary Admission

Q: A nurse in a mental health facility is discussing involuntary admissions. Which statement
should be included?

• A) A client must take all prescribed medications

• B) Admission is limited to 2 weeks

• C) Client can leave against medical advice

• D) An involuntary admission is justified if the client is a danger to others

Correct Answer: D) An involuntary admission is justified if the client is a danger to others

Rationale: A client can be admitted involuntarily if they pose an immediate danger to
themselves or others, even without their consent.

7. Care Plan Priority: Self-Inflicted Injuries

Q: A nurse is developing a care plan for a client being treated for self-inflicted injuries. What is
the priority nursing intervention?

• A) Promoting and maintaining the client’s safety

• B) Discussing reasons for behavior

• C) Assisting client to recognize feelings

• D) Teaching alternative coping strategies

Correct Answer: A) Promoting and maintaining the client’s safety

Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy and nursing priorities dictate that client safety and physical
stabilization always come first before psychosocial factors can be addressed.

8. OCD Interventions

Q: A nurse is helping plan care for a client with OCD. Which of the following actions should the
nurse recommend?

• A) Encourage focus on hygiene

• B) Limit hours of sleep

• C) Instruct client to practice thought stopping

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• D) Make negative statements about behavior

Correct Answer: C) Instruct client to practice thought stopping

Rationale: Thought stopping is a cognitive-behavioral technique used to help clients interrupt
and manage obsessive thoughts, ultimately reducing compulsive behaviors.

9. Valproic Acid Monitoring

Q: A nurse is teaching a client with bipolar disorder about valproic acid. Which test should be
routinely performed?

• A) Electrocardiogram

• B) Chest X-ray

• C) Thyroid function tests

• D) Liver function levels

Correct Answer: D) Liver function levels

Rationale: Valproic acid carries a black box warning for hepatotoxicity. Liver function tests (LFTs)
must be monitored regularly to detect early signs of liver damage.

10. Heroin Intoxication

Q: A nurse in the ED is assessing a client with heroin intoxication. What finding should the nurse
expect?

• A) Seizure activity

• B) Respiratory depression

• C) Hypersensitivity to pain

• D) Increased alertness

Correct Answer: B) Respiratory depression

Rationale: Opioids like heroin depress the central nervous system, leading to a decreased
respiratory rate, pinpoint pupils, and potential respiratory failure.

11. Misconceptions About Alzheimer’s Disease

Q: During a community education session, a participant identifies "sudden confusion" as a
symptom of Alzheimer’s disease. What should the nurse conclude?

• A) Impaired judgment

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