HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR FINAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST AND
COMPREHENSIVE VERSION GUARANTEED PASS WITH
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD.
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment
finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved?
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct
Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a
reduction in hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate
desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this
medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound.
Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that
inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to
prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein
thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but
prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not
prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription
for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse
assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Heartburn.
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct
Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor
increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate intervention by
the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor
,A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products.
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet
high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and
milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime.
Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken around-the-clock (A) so that a stable
blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an
adverse effect) occurring because of too much of the drug circulating systemically at any
particular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an around-the-clock dosing schedule.
Pronestyl may be given with food if GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule
should still be maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct
drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle
spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia,
a cause of cramping.
C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an
indication of a serious side effect. Correct
,D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness
of the drug.
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening,
complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C).
Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is
not the likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those
taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the
leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk
for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable
form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X
drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare
provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although
the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during
pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion
site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse
to implement?
A. Assess for erythema.
B. Administer the antidote.
, C. Apply warm compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct
Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of
tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent
further tissue damage by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted,
but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote
may be available (B), additional fluids contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues.
Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed after the
infusion is discontinued.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II receptor blocker
(ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory
results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. What action should the
nurse take first?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct
B. Check the client's apical pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Repeat the serum potassium level.
The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar (A) because the client is
hyperkalemic (normal range 3.5 to 5 mEq/L). Although hypokalemia is usually associated with
diuretic therapy in heart failure, hyperkalemia is associated with several heart failure
medications, including ARBs. Because hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, the nurse
should check the apical pulse for rate and rhythm (B), and the blood pressure. Before repeating
the serum study (D), the nurse should notify the healthcare provider (C) of the findings.
Which change in data indicates to the nurse that the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor
antagonist valsartan (Diovan) has been achieved?
A. Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1.
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dl.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST AND
COMPREHENSIVE VERSION GUARANTEED PASS WITH
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD.
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment
finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved?
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct
Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates a
reduction in hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do not indicate
desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH).
During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this
medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound.
Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an anticoagulant that
inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is given prophylactically to
prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat pulmonary embolism or deep vein
thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries. Heparin does not dissolve clots but
prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C). The anticoagulant heparin does not
prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new prescription
for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor prescription, the nurse
assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Heartburn.
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct
Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor
increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this finding requires the most immediate intervention by
the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are expected side effects of Lipitor
,A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products.
Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet
high in potassium should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing milk and
milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses over the
next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime.
Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be taken around-the-clock (A) so that a stable
blood level of the drug can be maintained, thereby decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an
adverse effect) occurring because of too much of the drug circulating systemically at any
particular time of day. (B, C, and D) do not provide an around-the-clock dosing schedule.
Pronestyl may be given with food if GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule
should still be maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse at the
clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct
drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle
spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia,
a cause of cramping.
C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an
indication of a serious side effect. Correct
,D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness
of the drug.
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening,
complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C).
Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is
not the likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those
taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related to the
leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk
for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable
form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X
drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare
provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although
the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during
pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion
site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse
to implement?
A. Assess for erythema.
B. Administer the antidote.
, C. Apply warm compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct
Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of
tissue upon extravasation. First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent
further tissue damage by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted,
but edema and pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote
may be available (B), additional fluids contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues.
Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed after the
infusion is discontinued.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II receptor blocker
(ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory
results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. What action should the
nurse take first?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct
B. Check the client's apical pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Repeat the serum potassium level.
The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar (A) because the client is
hyperkalemic (normal range 3.5 to 5 mEq/L). Although hypokalemia is usually associated with
diuretic therapy in heart failure, hyperkalemia is associated with several heart failure
medications, including ARBs. Because hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, the nurse
should check the apical pulse for rate and rhythm (B), and the blood pressure. Before repeating
the serum study (D), the nurse should notify the healthcare provider (C) of the findings.
Which change in data indicates to the nurse that the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor
antagonist valsartan (Diovan) has been achieved?
A. Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1.
B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dl.
