ATI PN | PHARMACOLOGY
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
ATI PN Pharmacology - Proctor
Exam | NGN-Style Questions &
Case Studies | 2026/2027
Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027
Professional Nursing Exam | NGN-Style Case Studies
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Medication Administration & Dosage Calculations • Neurological & Analgesic Medications
• Adverse Effects & Contraindications • Endocrine & Diabetic Pharmacotherapy
• Cardiac & Antihypertensive Agents • Pediatric & Maternal Drug Considerations
COVER PAGE - 1
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 4
,SECTION 1 | Pharmacology Basics & Safe Medication Administration | Q1-Q15 | ATI PN Pharmacology - Proctor E...
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg PO daily. The
nurse reviews the client's morning laboratory results and notes a serum potassium
level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the furosemide as scheduled and document the potassium level.
B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider about the hypokalemia.
C. Give the client a potassium supplement before administering the furosemide.
D. Recheck the potassium level with a stat venous blood draw.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion. A serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L
indicates moderate hypokalemia, and administering furosemide could worsen it, potentially causing
cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse must hold the medication and notify the provider. Giving a
potassium supplement without an order is outside the nurse's scope, and rechecking delays
necessary intervention.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
,A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to an adult client. Before
giving the dose, the nurse checks the apical pulse and finds it to be 52 beats per
minute. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the client for bradycardia.
B. Hold the digoxin and reassess the apical pulse in 30 minutes.
C. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Give half the prescribed dose and document the rationale.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Digoxin slows the heart rate through its effects on the sinoatrial node. A heart rate below 60 beats
per minute in an adult is a contraindication to digoxin administration due to the risk of severe
bradycardia or heart block. The nurse must hold the dose and notify the provider. Administering the
dose or a partial dose could be dangerous, and reassessing in 30 minutes delays necessary
communication.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of subcutaneous insulin. The
client states, 'I always inject into the same spot on my abdomen because it is
easiest to reach.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. That is acceptable as long as you rotate between morning and evening injections.
B. You should rotate injection sites within one area to prevent lipodystrophy and
ensure consistent absorption.
C. The abdomen is not recommended for insulin; you should use your thigh or arm instead.
D. Injecting in the same spot improves absorption because the tissue becomes accustomed
to the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Repeated injection into the same site can cause lipodystrophy, which alters insulin absorption and
can lead to unpredictable blood glucose levels. The nurse should teach the client to rotate sites
within one anatomical area, such as the abdomen, while keeping injections at least one inch apart.
The abdomen is actually the preferred site for subcutaneous insulin due to rapid and consistent
absorption.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
, A client is prescribed warfarin 5 mg PO daily for atrial fibrillation. The nurse is
reviewing dietary teaching with the client. Which statement by the client indicates a
need for further instruction?
A. I will try to eat about the same amount of leafy green vegetables each day.
B. I should avoid cranberry juice because it can increase my INR.
C. I can take acetaminophen for headaches instead of ibuprofen.
D. I will stop eating all vegetables so my INR stays stable.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is antagonized by vitamin K, which is found in leafy green vegetables.
The key teaching point is consistency in vitamin K intake, not elimination. Stopping all vegetables is
unnecessary and nutritionally harmful. Consistent intake allows the provider to adjust the warfarin
dose accordingly. Cranberry juice and acetaminophen are appropriate considerations for warfarin
therapy.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A nurse is calculating a medication dose for a pediatric client. The provider orders
acetaminophen 240 mg PO. The available liquid suspension is 160 mg per 5 mL.
How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
A. 5.5 mL
B. 7.5 mL
C. 8.0 mL
D. 9.5 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Using the ratio-proportion method: 160 mg / 5 mL = 240 mg / X mL. Cross-multiplying gives 160X =
1200, so X = 7.5 mL. This is a basic dosage calculation that nurses must perform accurately to
prevent underdosing or overdosing. Double-checking calculations with another nurse is a
recommended safety practice.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
ATI PN Pharmacology - Proctor
Exam | NGN-Style Questions &
Case Studies | 2026/2027
Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027
Professional Nursing Exam | NGN-Style Case Studies
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Medication Administration & Dosage Calculations • Neurological & Analgesic Medications
• Adverse Effects & Contraindications • Endocrine & Diabetic Pharmacotherapy
• Cardiac & Antihypertensive Agents • Pediatric & Maternal Drug Considerations
COVER PAGE - 1
TI PN Pharmacology - Proctor Exam | NGN-Style Questions & Case Studies | 2026/2027 Pharmacology ATI (PDF) 2026/2027 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 4
,SECTION 1 | Pharmacology Basics & Safe Medication Administration | Q1-Q15 | ATI PN Pharmacology - Proctor E...
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg PO daily. The
nurse reviews the client's morning laboratory results and notes a serum potassium
level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the furosemide as scheduled and document the potassium level.
B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider about the hypokalemia.
C. Give the client a potassium supplement before administering the furosemide.
D. Recheck the potassium level with a stat venous blood draw.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion. A serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L
indicates moderate hypokalemia, and administering furosemide could worsen it, potentially causing
cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse must hold the medication and notify the provider. Giving a
potassium supplement without an order is outside the nurse's scope, and rechecking delays
necessary intervention.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
,A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO to an adult client. Before
giving the dose, the nurse checks the apical pulse and finds it to be 52 beats per
minute. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the client for bradycardia.
B. Hold the digoxin and reassess the apical pulse in 30 minutes.
C. Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D. Give half the prescribed dose and document the rationale.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Digoxin slows the heart rate through its effects on the sinoatrial node. A heart rate below 60 beats
per minute in an adult is a contraindication to digoxin administration due to the risk of severe
bradycardia or heart block. The nurse must hold the dose and notify the provider. Administering the
dose or a partial dose could be dangerous, and reassessing in 30 minutes delays necessary
communication.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of subcutaneous insulin. The
client states, 'I always inject into the same spot on my abdomen because it is
easiest to reach.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. That is acceptable as long as you rotate between morning and evening injections.
B. You should rotate injection sites within one area to prevent lipodystrophy and
ensure consistent absorption.
C. The abdomen is not recommended for insulin; you should use your thigh or arm instead.
D. Injecting in the same spot improves absorption because the tissue becomes accustomed
to the medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Repeated injection into the same site can cause lipodystrophy, which alters insulin absorption and
can lead to unpredictable blood glucose levels. The nurse should teach the client to rotate sites
within one anatomical area, such as the abdomen, while keeping injections at least one inch apart.
The abdomen is actually the preferred site for subcutaneous insulin due to rapid and consistent
absorption.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
, A client is prescribed warfarin 5 mg PO daily for atrial fibrillation. The nurse is
reviewing dietary teaching with the client. Which statement by the client indicates a
need for further instruction?
A. I will try to eat about the same amount of leafy green vegetables each day.
B. I should avoid cranberry juice because it can increase my INR.
C. I can take acetaminophen for headaches instead of ibuprofen.
D. I will stop eating all vegetables so my INR stays stable.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is antagonized by vitamin K, which is found in leafy green vegetables.
The key teaching point is consistency in vitamin K intake, not elimination. Stopping all vegetables is
unnecessary and nutritionally harmful. Consistent intake allows the provider to adjust the warfarin
dose accordingly. Cranberry juice and acetaminophen are appropriate considerations for warfarin
therapy.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A nurse is calculating a medication dose for a pediatric client. The provider orders
acetaminophen 240 mg PO. The available liquid suspension is 160 mg per 5 mL.
How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
A. 5.5 mL
B. 7.5 mL
C. 8.0 mL
D. 9.5 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Using the ratio-proportion method: 160 mg / 5 mL = 240 mg / X mL. Cross-multiplying gives 160X =
1200, so X = 7.5 mL. This is a basic dosage calculation that nurses must perform accurately to
prevent underdosing or overdosing. Double-checking calculations with another nurse is a
recommended safety practice.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
