HESI | Med Surg 266
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions
& Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass ||
Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale
Certification Exam
100 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Cardiovascular Systems Respiratory Systems
Endocrine Disorders Neurological Systems
Gastrointestinal Systems Immunological Care
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Cardiovascular and Respiratory Systems | Q1-Q20 | BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions &
Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale 2026/2027
Q1. Question 1 of 100
A patient with a history of heart failure presents to the emergency department with severe
dyspnea, a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min, and pink, frothy sputum. Which intervention
should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Administering a beta-blocker intravenously.
B. Laying the patient flat to increase venous return.
C. Administering intravenous furosemide.
D. Applying a continuous passive motion device.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Pink, frothy sputum and severe dyspnea are hallmark signs of acute pulmonary edema, a medical
emergency often caused by left-sided heart failure. The immediate priority is to administer a
rapid-acting loop diuretic like IV furosemide to reduce fluid overload and pulmonary congestion.
Q2. Question 2 of 100
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system.
The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this finding
indicate?
A. The client's lung has fully re-expanded.
B. There is an active air leak in the system.
C. The suction pressure is set too high.
D. Normal functioning of the chest tube system.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak, either from the client's lung or
within the tubing system. Intermittent bubbling during exhalation or coughing is normal, but continuous
bubbling is not.
g Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions & Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale - 2026/2027 | Pass
, Q3. Question 3 of 100
A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the right leg. Which finding requires
the most immediate action by the nurse?
A. A positive Homan's sign in the right leg.
B. Right calf swelling and erythema.
C. Sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain.
D. A temperature of 100.2 degrees Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain in a client with a DVT are classic signs of a pulmonary
embolism (PE), a life-threatening complication where the clot has traveled to the lungs. This requires
immediate emergency intervention.
Q4. Question 4 of 100
The nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a patient with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The results are pH 7.31, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 28
mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis.
C. Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis.
D. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The low pH indicates acidosis. The elevated PaCO2 indicates a respiratory cause. The elevated HCO3
indicates the kidneys are trying to compensate for the respiratory acidosis, but because the pH is still
abnormal, it is only partially compensated.
g Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions & Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale - 2026/2027 | Pass
, Q5. Question 5 of 100
A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol and fluticasone inhalers. What is the most
important instruction the nurse should provide regarding the administration of these
medications?
A. Use the fluticasone inhaler first, followed by the albuterol inhaler.
B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the albuterol inhaler.
C. Use the albuterol inhaler first, wait 5 minutes, then use the fluticasone inhaler.
D. Use both inhalers at the exact same time using a spacer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that opens the airways. Using it first allows the corticosteroid
(fluticasone) to reach deeper into the lungs. Waiting 5 minutes between inhalants maximizes this effect.
Q6. Question 6 of 100
A client presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. The ECG
reveals ST-segment elevation. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer
immediately as part of the initial protocol?
A. Oral digoxin.
B. Sublingual nitroglycerin.
C. Intravenous furosemide.
D. Oral clopidogrel.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The client is exhibiting signs of an acute myocardial infarction (STEMI). The standard initial protocol
(often remembered by the acronym MONA) includes sublingual nitroglycerin to cause vasodilation and
improve coronary blood flow.
g Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions & Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale - 2026/2027 | Pass
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions
& Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass ||
Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale
Certification Exam
100 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Cardiovascular Systems Respiratory Systems
Endocrine Disorders Neurological Systems
Gastrointestinal Systems Immunological Care
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Cardiovascular and Respiratory Systems | Q1-Q20 | BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions &
Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale 2026/2027
Q1. Question 1 of 100
A patient with a history of heart failure presents to the emergency department with severe
dyspnea, a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min, and pink, frothy sputum. Which intervention
should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Administering a beta-blocker intravenously.
B. Laying the patient flat to increase venous return.
C. Administering intravenous furosemide.
D. Applying a continuous passive motion device.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Pink, frothy sputum and severe dyspnea are hallmark signs of acute pulmonary edema, a medical
emergency often caused by left-sided heart failure. The immediate priority is to administer a
rapid-acting loop diuretic like IV furosemide to reduce fluid overload and pulmonary congestion.
Q2. Question 2 of 100
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system.
The nurse observes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this finding
indicate?
A. The client's lung has fully re-expanded.
B. There is an active air leak in the system.
C. The suction pressure is set too high.
D. Normal functioning of the chest tube system.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak, either from the client's lung or
within the tubing system. Intermittent bubbling during exhalation or coughing is normal, but continuous
bubbling is not.
g Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions & Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale - 2026/2027 | Pass
, Q3. Question 3 of 100
A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the right leg. Which finding requires
the most immediate action by the nurse?
A. A positive Homan's sign in the right leg.
B. Right calf swelling and erythema.
C. Sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain.
D. A temperature of 100.2 degrees Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain in a client with a DVT are classic signs of a pulmonary
embolism (PE), a life-threatening complication where the clot has traveled to the lungs. This requires
immediate emergency intervention.
Q4. Question 4 of 100
The nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a patient with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The results are pH 7.31, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3 28
mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these findings?
A. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis.
C. Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis.
D. Partially compensated metabolic acidosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The low pH indicates acidosis. The elevated PaCO2 indicates a respiratory cause. The elevated HCO3
indicates the kidneys are trying to compensate for the respiratory acidosis, but because the pH is still
abnormal, it is only partially compensated.
g Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions & Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale - 2026/2027 | Pass
, Q5. Question 5 of 100
A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol and fluticasone inhalers. What is the most
important instruction the nurse should provide regarding the administration of these
medications?
A. Use the fluticasone inhaler first, followed by the albuterol inhaler.
B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the albuterol inhaler.
C. Use the albuterol inhaler first, wait 5 minutes, then use the fluticasone inhaler.
D. Use both inhalers at the exact same time using a spacer.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that opens the airways. Using it first allows the corticosteroid
(fluticasone) to reach deeper into the lungs. Waiting 5 minutes between inhalants maximizes this effect.
Q6. Question 6 of 100
A client presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. The ECG
reveals ST-segment elevation. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer
immediately as part of the initial protocol?
A. Oral digoxin.
B. Sublingual nitroglycerin.
C. Intravenous furosemide.
D. Oral clopidogrel.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The client is exhibiting signs of an acute myocardial infarction (STEMI). The standard initial protocol
(often remembered by the acronym MONA) includes sublingual nitroglycerin to cause vasodilation and
improve coronary blood flow.
g Exam (Latest 2026/2027) Questions & Correct Answers With Rationales, 100% Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide - Nightingale - 2026/2027 | Pass
