2026/2027 Update) 50 Verified Questions & Answers with
Detailed Rationales | Grade A Fortis
SUBTITLE:
50 Exam Questions with Answers & Detailed Rationales
PREPARED FOR:
NUR 202 Maternal-Newborn Nursing — Fortis College
DOCUMENT INCLUDES:
● Exam-style questions
● Correct answers
● Detailed rationales
● Key topics covered
TOPICS COVERED:
● Antepartum Assessment & Care
● Intrapartum / Labor & Delivery
● Postpartum Maternal Care
● Newborn Physical Assessment & Transition
● Neonatal Complications & High-Risk Conditions
● High-Risk Pregnancy Complications
● Fetal Monitoring & Surveillance
● Reproductive Health & Family Planning
● Pharmacological Interventions in Maternal-Newborn Care
● Postpartum Complications & Emergency Management
PURPOSE:
,This comprehensive review guide is designed to help NUR 202 students master
essential Maternal-Newborn nursing concepts, strengthen clinical judgment, and
confidently prepare for the latest 2026/2027 course examinations.
SECTION 1: Antepartum Assessment & Care
Question 1
A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting every morning.
She asks the nurse what she can do to relieve these symptoms. Which recommendation
is most appropriate?
A. Take a prenatal vitamin on an empty stomach each morning
B. Eat dry crackers or toast before getting out of bed
C. Drink 2–3 large glasses of water immediately upon waking
D. Avoid all solid foods until the nausea subsides completely
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eating dry crackers or toast before getting out of bed helps absorb gastric
acid and provides a carbohydrate base that can reduce morning nausea. This is a
first-line, evidence-based intervention for mild nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP).
Option A is incorrect because prenatal vitamins, especially those containing iron, can
worsen nausea when taken on an empty stomach; they should be taken with food or at
bedtime. Option C is incorrect because consuming large volumes of fluid on an empty
stomach can increase gastric distention and trigger vomiting. Option D is incorrect
because avoiding all solid foods can lead to hypoglycemia and ketosis, potentially
worsening nausea.
Question 2
,A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client in her first trimester. Which finding
requires immediate follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
C. Blood type O positive with negative antibody screen
D. Rubella titer indicating non-immunity
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A rubella titer indicating non-immunity requires immediate follow-up because
rubella infection during pregnancy can cause severe congenital anomalies, including
deafness, cataracts, and cardiac defects. The client should be counseled to avoid
exposure and will receive postpartum vaccination. Option A is incorrect because a
hemoglobin of 11.5 g/dL, while slightly low, is within the expected physiologic anemia
range of pregnancy due to hemodilution and is not immediately dangerous. Option B is
incorrect because a mild leukocytosis (up to 12,000–15,000/mm³) is a normal
physiologic change in pregnancy. Option C is incorrect because blood type O positive
with a negative antibody screen is a common and non-urgent finding.
Question 3
During a prenatal visit, a client at 28 weeks gestation reports occasional swelling in her
ankles by the end of the day. On assessment, the nurse notes 1+ pitting edema in both
ankles that resolves with elevation and rest. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Restrict the client's sodium intake and fluid intake
B. Instruct the client to rest with her legs elevated and wear support stockings
C. Immediately notify the provider of possible preeclampsia
D. Order a 24-hour urine protein collection
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Dependent edema that resolves with rest and elevation is a normal
physiologic finding in the third trimester due to increased venous pressure from the
gravid uterus compressing the inferior vena cava. First-line nursing management
includes leg elevation, support stockings, and avoiding prolonged standing. Option A is
incorrect because restricting sodium and fluid is not recommended in pregnancy and
can be harmful. Options C and D are incorrect because isolated dependent edema
without hypertension, proteinuria, or other systemic symptoms does not indicate
preeclampsia and does not warrant immediate provider notification or a 24-hour urine
collection.
Question 4
A client at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she should begin to feel fetal
movement. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "Most first-time mothers feel movement between 18 and 22 weeks."
B. "You should already be feeling strong daily movements by now."
C. "Fetal movement is not typically felt until the third trimester."
D. "You will only feel movement after 28 weeks gestation."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Quickening, or the first perception of fetal movement, typically occurs
between 18 and 22 weeks gestation in primigravidas (first-time mothers). Multigravidas
may perceive movement slightly earlier, around 16–18 weeks. Option B is incorrect
because strong daily movements are not expected at 16 weeks; fetal movement
patterns become more regular later in pregnancy. Option C is incorrect because fetal
movement is commonly felt in the second trimester, not the third. Option D is incorrect
because 28 weeks is well beyond the typical timeframe for initial quickening.