(answered) NR283 Week 8 Final Exam (Topics Covered Weeks 5-7): Fall 2021
Practice questions for patho final 1. What kind of solution would a nurse give a patient who has very concentrated blood serum? Patient is hypertonic, so do the opposite. Hypo= into tissues hyper= from the tissues into the bloodstream a. A hypertonic solution so that the fluid moves out of the blood stream and into the tissues b. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move out of the blood stream and into the tissues c. An isotonic solution so that the fluid volume will increase overall d. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move into the blood and out of the tissues 2. What is the main difference between aldosterone and ADH? a. Aldosterone causes an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt b. ADH causes an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt c. Aldosterone causes an increase in urine output d. ADH causes a decrease in blood pressure 3. What secretes ADH? a. The hypothalamus b. The kidneys c. The pituitary gland d. The thymus 4. What secretes aldosterone? a. The pituitary gland b. The thymus c. The adrenal gland d. The kidneys 5. What is the goal of the RAAS system? a. To decrease overall blood volume and decrease blood pressure b. To increase overall blood volume and increase blood pressure c. To give the liver more albumin d. To increase overall blood volume and decrease blood pressure 6. Which hormone meets with what to create aldosterone? a. Angiotensin I meets with angiotension II b. Renin meets with ACE c. Angiotensin II meets with the adrenal gland which creates ADH d. Angiotensin II meets with the adrenal gland which creates aldosterone 7. What electrolyte is responsible for most neurological functions? a. Potassiumb. Magnesium c. Calcium d. Sodium 8. True or false, sodium is primarily responsible for neurologic function, potassium is primarily responsible for cardiac function, and calcium is primarily responsible for muscular function a. True b. false 9. if a patient is in respiratory alkalosis – what is the most likely scenario? a. They have had chronic renal failure for two years b. They have been on a ventilator for a week c. They are anxious about an upcoming surgery and have been hyperventilating for 5 minutes d. They have had emphysema for 5 years 10. Which compensation is more slow but more efficient? a. Renal b. Respiratory 11. True or false – respiratory compensation only effects CO2 levels a. True b. False 12. A patient who is diagnosed with turner’s syndrome has a short stature, wide nipples, and a webbed neck. This is the patient’s: a. Allele b. Phenotype c. Genotype d. DNA 13. What chromosome is missing in a patient with down syndrome and what is a main risk factor? a. 23rd chromosome, a mother who is 19 b. 21st chromosome, a mother who is 16 c. 21st chromosome, a mother who is 38 d. 23rd chromosome, a mother who is 37 14. what differentiates cancer cells from regular cells? a. Evades apoptosis and mutates quickly b. Ignores growth restrictions and has limited angiogenesis capabilities c. Invades tissues quickly and mutates slowly d. Decreased replication and increased angiogenesis 15. What is a normal range for erythrocytes a. 100,000-500,000 b. 4-6 million c. 10-20 million d. 20,000-50,00016. a nurse understands that preload is: a. the amount of blood in the atrium at the end of diastole b. the amount of blood in the aorta at the end of systole c. the amount of force the heart uses to push the blood out of the ventricle d. the volume of blood in ventricles at the end of diastole 17. all of these options are types of anemia EXCEPT: a. hemorrhagic loses b. erythrocyte destruction/malfunction c. impaired production of erythrocytes d. loss of white blood cells and cytokines 18. which patient is MOST at risk for iron deficiency? a. A pregnant woman who is vegetarian b. A body builder who works 6 days a week c. A child who has been diagnosed with autism d. A pregnant woman who works out 4 days a week 19. True or false- cycle cell anemia causes a decrease in overall RBC count which directly causes hypoxia… decrease in oxygen deliver. Bc cells are miss shaped a. True b. False 20. The nurse understands that a patient experiencing Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is experiencing: a. Clotting excessively b. Extreme bleeding c. Clotting excessively and bleeding simultaneously d. Has a high red blood cell count in addition to a high white blood cell count 21. The nurse is trying to calculate a patient’s cardiac output after abdominal surgery. She uses this formula: a. CO = HR X SV b. CO = SV X MAP c. CO = MAP X HR d. CO = HR X SV / MAP 22. The nurse understands that afterload is: a. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole b. The resistance the left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood throughout the body c. The amount the heart has to stretch to push the blood out of the atria d. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of systole23. what patient is MOST at risk for deep vein thrombosis? a. a 21 year old female on birth control b. a 50 year old man who works out 5 days a week c. a 30 year old woman who works in a factory d. a 22 year female who has epilepsy 24. the nurse understands that heart failure is: a. a sudden increase in ADH b. always occurs on both sides of the heart c. the inability of the heart to filter out RBC’s and carbon dioxide d. the inability of the heart to meet metabolic demand 25. a 50 year old obese man comes in complaining of swelling in ankles and a stomach ache that has not gone away. The nurse notices that the man’s head bobs with each heartbeat. The blood vessels on his neck are also distended. What is most likely the case? a. The man is experiencing left heart failure because of an increase in systemic pulmonary vascular resistance b. The man is experiencing right heart failure because of an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance c. The man is experiencing right heart failure because of left heart failure d. The man is experiencing left heart failure due to pulmonary edema 26. A 60 year old chronic smoker and obese male comes in complaining of difficulty breathing while laying down, shortness of breath, pink frothy sputum, and fatigue. What else would be an expected finding? a. Yellow sputum b. JVD c. Blue fingertips and lips d. Bruit sounds over left carotid artery 27. What are some clinical manifestations of coronary artery disease? a. Excessive bleeding and anemia b. Osteoporosis and compartment syndrome c. Flank pain and dyspnea d. Dyspnea and angina 28. What is myocardial ischemia? A. Heart attack B. Stroke C. chest pain D. coronary artery disease29. a patient with alectasis is most likely experiencing a problem with: a. ventilation b. respiration c. perfusion d. bronchiole constriction 30. who is MOST at risk for pleural effusion? a. A 20 year old man who just had his tonsils removed b. A 29 year old female with asthma c. A 90 year old female with DVT who had a pneumothorax from an accident when she was 10 years old d. A 56 year old man who just had a kidney transplant and has been bedridden for two weeks 31. A 30 year old male who just got out of surgery to remove his appendix is experiencing aspiration right after the nurse delivers his lunch. The patient is most likely having issues with: a. Dysphagia b. Dysphasia c. Both A and B d. Right heart failure 32. Which pulmonary disorder is NOT a COPD? a. Emphysema b. Asthma c. Acute bronchitis d. chronic bronchitis 33. a pulmonary embolism causes tissue damage in the: a. heart b. bronchiole membrane c. pulmonary vascular bed d. left ventricle 34. what is the leading cause of death by curable disease? a. Tuberculosis b. Meningitis c. Emphysema d. Myocardial infarction 35. GERD is a malfunction of what part of the GI tract? a. Duodenum of the small intestine b. Epiglottis c. Jejunic sphincter of the small intestined. Pyloric sphincter 36. Match the correct risk factor with its corresponding disease a. GERD and peptic ulcers b. Peptic ulcers and gastritis c. Gastritis and peptic ulcers d. Appendicitis and gastritis 37. What differentiates Crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis? a. A risk factor for Crohn’s is family history and a risk factor for UC is lactose allergy b. Crohn’s patients have lesions only on the small intestine whereas UC can have lesions anywhere c. Crohn’s patients have soft stools whereas UC patients have bloody diarrhea d. Crohn’s patients have submucosal inflammation whereas UC patients have fat wrapping 38. What is a main complication of pancreatitis? a. Gastritis b. Diverticulitis c. Liver damage d. Hemorrhagic shock 39. what is not a function of the liver? a. Vitamin absorption b. Production of albumin c. Inhibits clotting factors d. Synthesizes bile 40. What patient is MOST at risk for acute liver failure? a. A 35 year old patient with left heart failure b. A 39 year old patient who has had jaundice for 7 months c. A 22 year old patient who took Ecstasy a week ago at a music festival d. A 23 year old patient who plays football and takes Tylenol for his injuries 41. What is the main cause of portal hypertension? a. Right heart failure b. Cirrhosis from liver failure c. Consuming too many NSAID’s d. Jaundice from liver failure 42. What does portal hypertension put the patient at risk for? a. Hemmhoragic shock b. Low blood pressure c. Right heart failured. JVD 43. A 35 year old patient comes into the ER. He states he has been smoking for 14 years and has a distended stomach. he complains of vomiting blood and states his “stomach really hurts”. What is most likely the case? a. The patient is experiencing systemic hypertension and kidney failure b. The patient is experiencing portal hypertension c. The patient is experiencing right heart failure d. The patient has peptic ulcers that have led to gastritis 44. What causes jaundice? a. Failure of the liver to produce bilirubin and eliminate it b. Failure of the liver to conjugate bilirubin c. Failure of platelets to conjugate bilirubin d. Failure of hepatocytes to conjugate bile 45. What cells are the first ones to arrive at the site of inflammation? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Monocytes d. Neutrophil 46. What is the role of bradykinin in the immune response? a. Vasodilation and capillary permeability b. Pain and fever c. Chemotaxis and pain d. Pain and increased cap permeability 47. What is the immune response of a mast cell? a. Degranulates and Releases histamines as a response to inflammation b. Degranulates and releases chemical mediators to the site of injury c. Is activated and releases chemical mediators to recognize foreign bodies at the site of injury d. Degranulates and releases histamine and prostaglandin to vasoconstrict vessels at the site of injury 48. What is IgA immunoglobulin responsible for? a. Allergic response b. Activate B cells c. Blood transfusion reactions d. Tears and saliva 49. What hypersensitivity type are formation of immune complex clumps? a. Type Ib. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV 50. What type of immunity is a vaccine for the flu? a. Natural passive b. Natural artificial c. Artificial passive d. Artificial active 51. What is an example of a water soluble hormone? a. Insulin b. ADH c. Aldosterone d. Angiotensin 52. What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders? a. Target cell resistance b. Infection c. Congenital defects d. Tumors 53. What is a clinical manifestation of SIADH? a. Hypernatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypoosmolarity d. Diluted urine 54. What does an A1C test used for? a. To see how many hemoglobins bind to insulin b. To see how many glucose molecules bind to insulin c. To see how many glucose molecules bind with hemoglobin d. To see how many glugacon molecules bind with insulin 55. Which one is NOT an autoimmune disease? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Type I diabetes d. Grave’s Disease 56. What patient is MOST at risk for insulin shock? a. A type II diabetes patient who forgot to take their insulin injection b. A type I diabetes patient who accidentally injected too much insulinc. A diabetes insipidus patient who has heart failure and forgot their insulin injection d. A type II diabetes patient who has DVT 57. All are true about diabetic ketoacidosis EXCEPT: a. The patient experiences hypoglycemia b. The patient experiences metabolic acidosis c. The patient experiences hyperglycemia d. The patient has sweet smelling urine 58. All are true about osteoporosis EXCEPT: a. A risk factor is a woman finishing menopause b. Clinical manifestation is silent c. It is a chronic disease d. It is an increase in osteoblast activity 59. What is the most common age-related joint disorder? a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteoporosis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Parkinson’s disease 60. True or false: rheumatoid arthritis is caused by old age and the degrading of cartilage by B cells a. True b. False 61. What is a complication of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Rheumatoid nodules invade other systems b. Inflammation in synovial joints c. Pain relief upon movement of joints d. Fever and inflammation 62. What is NOT a function of the kidneys? a. Regulate blood pressure b. Remove waste products c. Regulate water levels d. Stores red blood cells 63. A renal calculi located in the left ureter would be a: a. intrarenal obstruction b. prerenal obstruction c. postrenal obstruction d. preictal obstruction 64. what is the main cause of glomerulonephritis?a. Direct damage to the kidney b. Strep infection c. Type II immune sensitivity d. Autoimmune 65. What is nephrotic syndrome? a. Too much albumin in the urine b. Too little protein in the urine c. Too much protein in the urine d. Too much protein in the blood 66. A 50 year old patient comes into the ER complaining of extreme flank pain, nausea, and hematuria – what is he most likely experiencing? a. Renal calculi obstruction- kidney stones b. Acute kidney failure c. Acute Pyelonephritis- bladder infection untreated- up to kidney= fever d. Acute cystitis- bladder infection 67. What patient is MOST at risk for acute cystitis? a. A 30 year old pregnant woman who has edema b. A 80 year old male with prostate cancer c. A man with type II diabetes d. A 78 year old female who lives in a nursing home 68. True or false – the most common cause of pyelonephritis is acute cystitis a. True b. False 69. All of these are symptoms of acute cystitis EXCEPT: a. groin pain b. Oliguria c. Dysuria d. Fever and chills 70. Why would a patient with chronic kidney disease be experiencing immune suppression? a. Decreased urea in the blood increases death rate of WBC’s b. Increased urea in the blood increases death rate of WBC’s c. Increased protein in the urine inhibits inflammatory response d. Decreased albumin causes spontaneous WBC death 71. All of the following are expected findings for chronic kidney failure EXCEPT: a. Increased insulin b. Increased proteinuria c. Edemad. Increased blood pressure 72. Why does DM lead to chronic kidney disease? a. The high amounts of insulin in the blood stream causes the kidney vessels to constrict and dilate causing blockages b. The high amounts of glucose in the blood destroy the basement membrane of the kidneys c. The high amounts of insulin in the blood destroy the basement membranes of the kidneys d. The high amounts of sugar in the blood completely block the renal arteries 73. The parasympathetic system does all the following EXCEPT: a. Stimulates flow of saliva b. Stimulates release of bile c. Dilates bronchi d. Contracts bladder 74. Which pathway lowers the pain threshold with prostaglandin and histamine? a. Inhibitory b. Endogenous c. Excitatory d. Sensory 75. What is the role of endorphins for pain? a. Prevent transmission of pain signals b. Prevent transduction of pain signals c. Prevent translation of pain signals d. Decrease pain threshold 76. A woman is in the ER for chronic neuropathic pain. The nurse gives the patient a deep tissue massage to control the pain. This is an example of: a. Expectancy-related cortical activation b. Segmental pain inhibitors c. Diffuse noxious inhibitory control d. Placebo 77. Dementia is caused by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Neuron degeneration b. Atherosclerosis c. Brain trauma d. Rheumatoid arthritis 78. What disease is the leading cause of severe cognitive dysfunction a. Alzheimersb. Demensia c. Parkinsons d. CVA 79. SELECT ALL the causes of epilepsy: a. Metabolic issues b. Drug use c. Tumor d. Fever e. Congenial issues f. Broken arm g. Genetics h. Synesthesia 80. What is the triad of cerebral hemodynamics? a. CSF, blood, and tissue b. CSF, neurons, and tissue c. Tissue, blood, and RBC’s d. CSF, neurons, and blood 81. Which causes more damage – coup or contrecoup A. Coup B. Contrecoup 82. All are risk factors for CVA’s EXCEPT: A. Dyslipidemia B. Hypertension C. Lung cancer D. chlamydia 83. what do you need to watch out for with TIA patients? a. Myocardial infarction b. Stroke c. Seizures d. Pulmonary embolism 84. What type of stroke is most likely caused by atherosclerosis? a. Embolic b. Thrombotic c. Hemhorragic d. Intracranial aneyrism 85. Who is most at risk for meningitis? a. A 45 year old school teacherb. A 34 year old homeless man who frequents shelters c. A 10 year old boy with appendicitis d. A 3 year old with an ear infection
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nr283 week 8 final exam
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what is the main differ
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nr 283 week 8 final exam topics covered weeks 5 7 fall 2021
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what kind of solution would a nurse give a patient who has very concentrated blood serum
