HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE
QUESTIONS FOR FINAL EXAM
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which
assessment finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been
achieved?
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct Correct answer-
Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates
a reduction in hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do
not indicate desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
(LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. Correct
answer- Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is
given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries.
Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C).
The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound
healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate
intervention?
A. Heartburn.
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct Correct answer- Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early
indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this
finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are
expected side effects of Lipitor
,A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is
most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. Correct answer- Spironolactone (Aldactone),
an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing
milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses
over the next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. Correct answer- Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be
taken around-the-clock (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained,
thereby decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because
of too much of the drug circulating systemically at any particular time of day. (B, C, and
D) do not provide an around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be given with
food if GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule should still be
maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse
at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement
reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause
muscle spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be
an indication of a serious side effect. Correct
D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the
effectiveness of the drug. Correct answer- Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and
weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and
should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte
, imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the
likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended
for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is
not related to the leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is
most important for the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. Correct answer- Drugs classified in the
category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for
teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a
reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with
Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with
the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if
pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the
restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the
insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A. Assess for erythema.
B. Administer the antidote.
C. Apply warm compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct Correct answer- Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic
agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation.
First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage
by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted, but edema and
pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote may be
available (B), additional fluids contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues.
Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed
after the infusion is discontinued.
QUESTIONS FOR FINAL EXAM
A client is receiving clonidine (Catapres) 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which
assessment finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been
achieved?
A. Client denies recent episodes of angina.
B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1.
C. Client denies recent nausea or vomiting.
D. Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70. Correct Correct answer-
Catapres acts as a centrally-acting analgesic and antihypertensive agent. (D) indicates
a reduction in hypertension. Catapres does not affect (A, B, or C), so these findings do
not indicate desired outcomes of Catapres
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
(LMWH). During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A. This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. Correct
B. This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C. This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. Incorrect
D. This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. Correct
answer- Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is
given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries.
Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C).
The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound
healing (D).
A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) receives a new
prescription for atorvastatin (Lipitor). Two weeks after initiation of the Lipitor
prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate
intervention?
A. Heartburn.
B. Headache.
C. Constipation.
D. Vomiting. Correct Correct answer- Vomiting, anorexia and abdominal pain are early
indications of digitalis toxicity. Since Lipitor increases the risk for digitalis toxicity, this
finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse (D). (A, B and C) are
expected side effects of Lipitor
,A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which information is
most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications?
Do not add salt to foods during preparation.
Refrain for eating foods high in potassium. Correct
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day.
Increase intake of milk and milk products. Correct answer- Spironolactone (Aldactone),
an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so a diet high in potassium
should be avoided (B), including potassium salt substitutes, which can lead to
hyperkalemia. Although (A) is a common diet modification in heart failure, the risk of
hyperkalemia is more important with Aldactone. Restriction of fluids (C) or increasing
milk and milk products (D) are not indicated with this prescription.
A client with a dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide (Pronestyl) in 4 divided doses
over the next 24 hours. What dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
q6h. Correct
QID.
AC and bedtime.
PC and bedtime. Correct answer- Pronestyl is a class 1A antidysrhythmic. It should be
taken around-the-clock (A) so that a stable blood level of the drug can be maintained,
thereby decreasing the possibility of hypotension (an adverse effect) occurring because
of too much of the drug circulating systemically at any particular time of day. (B, C, and
D) do not provide an around-the-clock dosing schedule. Pronestyl may be given with
food if GI distress is a problem, but an around-the-clock schedule should still be
maintained.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage nurse
at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement
reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client?
A. Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause
muscle spasms.
B. Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
C. Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be
an indication of a serious side effect. Correct
D. Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the
effectiveness of the drug. Correct answer- Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and
weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and
should be evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte
, imbalances such as (A or B) can cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the
likely cause of leg pain in the client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare
provider should not be delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended
for those taking Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is
not related to the leg pain symptom.
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is
most important for the nurse to teach this client?
A. Use a reliable form of birth control. Correct
B. Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C. Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D. Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. Correct answer- Drugs classified in the
category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk for
teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a
reliable form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with
Category X drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with
the healthcare provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if
pregnancy occurs. Although the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the
restriction of these drugs during pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
A client receiving Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the
insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A. Assess for erythema.
B. Administer the antidote.
C. Apply warm compresses.
D. Discontinue the IV fluids. Correct Correct answer- Doxorubicin is an antineoplastic
agent that causes inflammation, blistering, and necrosis of tissue upon extravasation.
First, all IV fluids should be discontinued at the site (D) to prevent further tissue damage
by the vesicant. Erythema is one sign of infiltration and should be noted, but edema and
pain at the infusion site require stopping the IV fluids (A). Although an antidote may be
available (B), additional fluids contribute to the trauma of the subcutaneous tissues.
Depending on the type of vesicant, warm or cold compresses (C) may be prescribed
after the infusion is discontinued.
