The latest guidelines for CPR call for continuous at 100-120min and at least 2" deep.
Once intubated, the compressions are continuous and the ventilating team member
provides a breath each 6 seconds. To effectively accomplish this, the team should:
a. Have compressions done by male technicians only
b. Provide team members with leather gloves for compressions
c. Change compressors about every 2 minutes
d. Have the ventilation and compression members rest every 5 minutes - answer c.
Change compressors about every 2 minutes
Tracheal intubation has just been attempted for a victim of respiratory arrest. During bag
valve ventilation, you have difficulty auscultating lung sounds and the end tidal CO2
(Pet CO2) reading is "0". Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these
findings?
a. Esophageal Intubation
b. Intubation of the left main bronchus
c. Intubation of the right main bronchus
d. Bilateral tension pneumothorax - answer a. Esophageal Intubation
An initial pulse check or a pulse check between 2 minute cycles of CPR should take no
longer than
a. 60 seconds
b. 2 minutes
c. 10 seconds
d. There is no limit - answer c. 10 seconds
Fibrinolytics may be used to clear blockage in an ischemic stroke. The patient must
have continual neurological assessments, ruled out non stroke causes and a CT scan
showing no bleeding. The key is the symptoms must have STARTED less than?
a. 3 hours ago
b. 30 minutes ago
c. 4.5 days ago
d. There is no limit - answer a. 3 hours ago
A patient remains in VF after a defibrillation shock, tracheal intubation, CPR,
Epinephrine 1mg IV, and another shock. Which of the following drug-dose combinations
should this patient receive next?
a. Amiodarone 300mg
b. Lidocaine 3mg/kg
c. Procainamide 20-50mg/min, up to a total dose of 17mg/kg
d. Magnesium 10g - answer a. Amiodarone 300mg
, ACLS Practice Test
You are part of a team resuscitating a 48 year old patient in ventricular fibrillation. After
delivery of each shock, what should you do?
a. Allow the team leader to analyze the rhythm
b. Check for a pulse, and if no pulse, begin chest compressions
c. Immediately begin CPR, starting with chest compressions
d. Wait for arrival of an ICU team, stopping every 3 minutes to analyze the rhythm -
answer c. Immediately begin CPR, starting with chest compressions
Which of the following poses the greatest risk during defibrillation?
a. Defibrillating a patient found on a metal floor
b. Defibrillating a patient with a nitro patch on the left shoulder
c. O2 blowing over the chest during defibrillation
d. Using defibrillation pads - answer c. O2 blowing over the chest during defibrillation
EMS arrives at the side of a 55 year old man in cardiac arrest. They begin CPR and
apply defibrillation pads to his chest. Later they have intubated the patient and started a
large bore IV. What is the best way for them to confirm effective CPR is being
performed?
a. Continued CPR should produce a normal blood pressure
b. Watch the EKG for signs for tachycardia
c. Monitor waveform capnography via exhaled CO2 (PETCO2)
d. Evaluate pulse oximetry - answer c. Monitor waveform capnography via exhaled CO2
(PETCO2)
A patient arrives in the ED. CPR continues with ventilations provided through a tracheal
tube inserted in the field. Chest compressions produce a femoral pulse that disappears
during a "stop compressions" pause. During the pause the cardiac monitor shows
narrow QRS complexes at a rate of 40 bpm. 1mg Epinephrine was just given. At this
point what is the next action you should take?
a. Begin reviewing the H's & T's for causes
b. Administer Atropine 1mg IV push
c. Send a stat blood sample for tox screen
d. Withhold compressions to allow the heart to "prime" - answer a. Begin reviewing the
H's & T's for causes
During a code you observe a rhythm on the monitor. The rate is 160. No pulse is
present. This best describes which rhythm?
a. PEA
b. SVT
c. V-Tach
d. Malfunctioning cardiac monitor - answer a. PEA