MN 580 Midterm test prep questions & answers 2022 latest update

MN 580 Midterm test prep questions & answers 2022 latest update Question 1 2 / 2 points An 18-year-old man presents with periumbilical pain, vomiting, and abdominal cramping over the past 48 hours. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and laboratory analysis shows the presence of bandemia and a total WBC of 28,000 mm3. To support the diagnosis of acute appendicitis with suspected appendiceal rupture, you consider obtaining the following abdominal imaging study: Question options: 1) Magnetic resonance image (MRI). 2) Computed tomography (CT) scan. 3) Ultrasound. 4) Flat plate. Question 2 2 / 2 points Gina is 2 years old and presents with a 3-day history of fever, crankiness, and congested cough. Her respiratory rate is more than 50% of the upper limits of normal for age. Tubular breath sounds are noted at the right lung base. Skin turgor is normal, and she is wearing a wet diaper. She is alert, resisting the examination as age appropriate, and engages in eye contact. Temperature is 38.3° C (101° F). Gina's diagnostic evaluation should include: Question options: 1) chest x-ray. 2) urine culture and sensitivity measurement. 3) lumbar puncture. 4) sputum culture. Question 3 2 / 2 points Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely: Question options: 1) a sequela of rheumatic fever. 2) a result of a congenital defect. 3) calcific in nature. 4) found with atrial septal defect. Question 4 2 / 2 points Which of the following laboratory tests can identify the causative organism of bronchiolitis? Question options: 1) Nasal washing antigen test. 2) Antibody test via blood sample. 3) Urine culture. 4) A laboratory test is not available. Question 5 2 / 2 points A Still murmur: Question options: 1) is heard in the presence of cardiac pathology. 2) has a humming or vibratory quality. 3) is a reason for denying sports participation clearance. 4) can become louder when the patient is standing. Question 6 2 / 2 points A physiological murmur has which of the following characteristics? Question options: 1) Occurs late in systole. 2) Is noted in a localized area of auscultation. 3) Becomes softer when the patient moves from supine to standing. 4) Frequently obliterates S2. Question 7 2 / 2 points You anticipate that adult car seat belts fit correctly when a child is approximately _____ tall and is____ old. Question options: 1) 51 inches (129.5 cm), 6 to 8 years 2) 53 inches (134.6 cm), 5 to 7 years 3) 57 inches (144.8 cm), 8 to 12 years 4) 59 inches (150 cm), 12 to 14 years Question 8 2 / 2 points Physical examination findings in otitis externa include: Question options: 1) tympanic membrane immobility. 2) increased ear pain with tragus palpation. 3) tympanic membrane erythema. 4) tympanic membrane bullae. Question 9 2 / 2 points In infants, solid foods are best introduced no earlier than: Question options: 1) 1–3 months. 2) 3–5 months. 3) 4–6 months. 4) 6–8 months. Question 10 2 / 2 points When advising a patient about injectable influenza immunization, the nurse practitioner (NP) considers the following about the use of this vaccine: Question options: 1) Its use is not recommended in sickle cell anemia. 2) Its use is limited to children older than 2 years. 3) Its use is limited due to containing live virus. 4) Its use is recommended for virtually all members of the population. Question 11 2 / 2 points A healthy 2-year-old child is able to: Question options: 1) speak in phrases of two or more words. 2) throw a ball at a target. 3) scribble spontaneously. 4) ride a tricycle. Question 12 2 / 2 points The preferred treatment option for a 6-year-old boy with pertussis is: Question options: 1) amoxicillin. 2) ceftriaxone. 3) azithromycin. 4) levofloxacin. Question 13 2 / 2 points At which of the following ages in a young child's life is parental anticipatory guidance about using “time out” as a discipline method most helpful? Question options: 1) 12–18 months. 2) 18–24 months. 3) 24–30 months. 4) 30–36 months. Question 14 2 / 2 points Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except: Question options: 1) staphylococcus aureus. 2) haemophilus influenzae. 3) streptococcus pneumoniae. 4) pseudomonas aeruginosa. Question 15 2 / 2 points At which of the following ages in a young child's life is parental anticipatory guidance about protection from falls most helpful? Question options: 1) Birth. 2) 2 months. 3) 4 months. 4) 6 months. Question 16 2 / 2 points Which of the following statements is true about inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)? Question options: 1) It contains live virus. 2) It is the preferred method of immunization in North America. 3) Two doses should be administered by a child's fourth birthday. 4) After administration of IPV, live poliovirus is usually shed from the stool. Question 17 2 / 2 points Problems after tetanus immunization typically include: Question options: 1) localized reaction at site of injection. 2) myalgia and malaise. 3) low-grade fever. 4) diffuse rash. Question 18 0 / 2 points Which of the following is true about the MMR vaccine? Question options: 1) This vaccine contains live virus. 2) Its use is contraindicated in persons with a history of egg allergy. 3) Revaccination of an immune person is associated with risk of allergic reaction. 4) One dose is recommended for young adults who have not been previously immunized. Question 19 2 / 2 points Treatment of viral conjunctivitis can include: Question options: 1) moxifloxacin ophthalmic drops. 2) polymyxin B ophthalmic drops. 3) oral acyclovir. 4) no antibiotic therapy needed. Question 20 2 / 2 points A healthy 6–7-month-old infant is able to: Question options: 1) roll from back to stomach. 2) confidently feed self a cracker. 3) reach for an object. 4) crawl on abdomen. Question 21 2 / 2 points At which of the following ages in a young child's life is parental anticipatory guidance about temper tantrums most helpful? Question options: 1) 8–10 months. 2) 10–12 months. 3) 12–14 months. 4) 14–16 months. Question 22 2 / 2 points Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)? Question options: 1) Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7 to 10 days. 2) Mild midfacial fullness and tenderness. 3) Preauricular lymphadenopathy. 4) Marked eyelid edema. Question 23 2 / 2 points Which of the following is the most prudent first-line treatment choice for an otherwise well toddler with acute otitis media (AOM) who requires antimicrobial therapy? Question options: 1) Ceftibuten. 2) Amoxicillin. 3) Cefuroxime. 4) Azithromycin. Question 24 2 / 2 points Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States? Question options: 1) Receiving blood products. 2) Ingestion of raw shellfish. 3) Drinking municipally sourced tap water drinking water. 4) Exposure to fecally contaminated food. Question 25 2 / 2 points Juice intake is acceptable in children 6 months and older per which of the following recommendations? Select all that apply. Question options: 1) The juice is mixed in small amounts to flavor water. 2) Only 100% juice is used. 3) Juice replaces no more than one serving of milk. 4) The juice is consumed in the morning with breakfast. 5) No more than 6 oz. (177 mL) per day is recommended for children 6 months to 5 years. Question 26 2 / 2 points You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical examination. You note a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder when he stands. This may represent: Question options: 1) aortic stenosis. 2) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. 3) a physiologic murmur. 4) a Still's murmur. Question 27 2 / 2 points A healthy infant at age 9–11 months is expected to: Question options: 1) roll from back to stomach. 2) imitate “bye-bye.” 3) play peek-a-boo. 4) hand toy on request. Question 28 2 / 2 points You examine a 10-year-old boy with suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. His mother asks if he can get a “shot of penicillin.” Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the use of intramuscular (IM) penicillin? Select all that apply. Question options: 1) Injectable benzathine PNC G, oral amoxicillin, and cephalexin are each strongly recommended for as treatment of Streptococcus pyogenes (GAS) pharyngitis 2) Injectable benzathine PNC G would be indicated for treatment of GAS if poor adherence to recommended therapy or inability to take full course of oral antibiotics is anticipated. 3) The risk of severe allergic reaction with IM products is similar to that of oral preparations. 4) Injectable penicillin has a superior spectrum of antimicrobial coverage compared with the oral form of the drug. Question 29 2 / 2 points At which of the following ages in an infant's life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful? Question options: 1) 1–2 months. 2) 2–4 months. 3) 4–6 months. 4) 8–10 months. Question 30 2 / 2 points First-line treatment for uncomplicated hordeolum is: Question options: 1) topical corticosteroid. 2) warm compresses to the affected area. 3) incision and drainage. 4) oral antimicrobial therapy. Question 31 2 / 2 points Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden? Question options: 1) Ultrasound. 2) Barium enema. 3) CT scan. 4) Abdominal flat plate. Question 32 2 / 2 points You are examining an 18-month-old boy who is not speaking any discernible words. Mom tells you he has not said “mama or dada” yet or babbled or smiled responsively. You: Question options: 1) encourage the mother to enroll her son in daycare to increase his socialization. 2) conduct further evaluation of milestone attainment. 3) reassure the parent that delayed speech is common in boys. 4) order audiogram and tympanometry. Question 33 2 / 2 points The gastric parietal cells produce: Question options: 1) hydrochloric acid. 2) a protective mucosal layer. 3) prostaglandins. 4) prokinetic hormones. Question 34 2 / 2 points The most common causative organism of bronchiolitis is: Question options: 1) haemophilus influenzae. 2) parainfluenza virus. 3) respiratory syncytial virus. 4) coxsackievirus. Question 35 2 / 2 points Which of the following would not be found in newborns? Question options: 1) Best vision at a range of 8–12 inches. 2) Presence of red reflex. 3) Light-sensitive eyes. 4) Lack of defensive blink. You are seeing a 2 mo old for well child. Mom is worried she is not making enough breast milk and thinking to change to formula, what response is most apptopriate Show growth and development chart Tdap 2, 4, 6, 15 mo, 4 years (5 doses) 30 month old has all teeth 12 mo old thriples birth weight, fontanel closes 12-18 mo, hopping age 4 2 concussions, min 1 month asymptomatic prior to return to play-issues cont=no play Question 1 (2 points) Saved In most children with bronchiolitis, intervention includes: Question 1 options: 1) aerosolized ribavirin therapy. 2) supportive care. 3) oral theophylline therapy. 4) oral corticoid steroid therapy. Question 2 (2 points) Saved Which of the following statements is true about inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPV)? Question 2 options: 1) It contains live virus. 2) It is the preferred method of immunization in North America. 3) Two doses should be administered by a child's fourth birthday. 4) After administration of IPV, live poliovirus is usually shed from the stool. Question 3 (2 points) Saved Which of the following do you expect to find in an examination of a 2-week-old infant? Question 3 options: 1) A visual preference for the human face. 2) A preference for low-pitched voices. 3) Indifference to the cry of other neonates. 4) Poorly developed sense of smell. Question 4 (2 points) Saved At which of the following ages in a young child's life is parental anticipatory guidance about infant sleep position most helpful? Question 4 options: 1) Birth. 2) 2 weeks. 3) 2 months. 4) 4 months. Question 5 (2 points) Saved Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with penicillin allergy include all of the following except: Question 5 options: 1) azithromycin. 2) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. 3) clarithromycin. 4) clindamycin. Question 6 (2 points) Saved A 4-year-old child presents with fever; exudative pharyngitis; anterior cervical lymphadenopathy; and a fine, raised, pink rash. The most likely diagnosis is: Question 6 options: 1) scarlet fever. 2) roseola. 3) rubella. 4) rubeola. Question 7 (2 points) Saved Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except: Question 7 options: 1) staphylococcus aureus. 2) haemophilus influenzae. 3) streptococcus pneumoniae. 4) pseudomonas aeruginosa. Question 8 (2 points) Saved At which age is a child at greatest risk of death from pertussis? Question 8 options: 1) 1 year. 2) 2–4 years. 3) 5–10 years. 4) 10 years. Question 9 (2 points) Saved A healthy 2-year-old child is able to: Question 9 options: 1) speak in phrases of two or more words. 2) throw a ball at a target. 3) scribble spontaneously. 4) ride a tricycle. Question 10 (2 points) Saved All of the following are components of the classic ophthalmological emergency except: Question 10 options: 1) eye pain. 2) purulent discharge. 3) red eye. 4) new onset change in visual acuity. Question 11 (2 points) Saved You anticipate that adult car seat belts fit correctly when a child is approximately _____ tall and is____ old. Question 11 options: 1) 51 inches (129.5 cm), 6 to 8 years 2) 53 inches (134.6 cm), 5 to 7 years 3) 57 inches (144.8 cm), 8 to 12 years 4) 59 inches (150 cm), 12 to 14 years Question 12 (2 points) Saved Physical examination findings in otitis externa include: Question 12 options: 1) tympanic membrane immobility. 2) increased ear pain with tragus palpation. 3) tympanic membrane erythema. 4) tympanic membrane bullae. Question 13 (2 points) Saved At which of the following ages in an infant's life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful? Question 13 options: 1) 1–2 months. 2) 2–4 months. 3) 4–6 months. 4) 8–10 months. Question 14 (2 points) Saved An 18-year-old woman has a chief complaint of a “sore throat and swollen glands” for the past 3 days. Her physical examination includes a temperature of 101° F (38. 3° C), exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Right and left upper quadrant abdominal tenderness is absent. The most likely diagnosis is: Question 14 options: 1) streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis. 2) infectious mononucleosis. 3) viral pharyngitis. 4) vincent angina. Question 15 (2 points) Saved Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden? Question 15 options: 1) Ultrasound. 2) Barium enema. 3) CT scan. 4) Abdominal flat plate. Question 16 (2 points) Saved Which of the following laboratory tests can identify the causative organism of bronchiolitis? Question 16 options: 1) Nasal washing antigen test. 2) Antibody test via blood sample. 3) Urine culture. 4) A laboratory test is not available. Question 17 (2 points) Saved Rectal bleeding associated with anal fissure is usually described by the patient as: Question 17 options: 1) drops of blood noticed when wiping. 2) dark brown to black in color and mixed in with normal-appearing stool. 3) a large amount of brisk red bleeding. 4) significant blood clots and mucus mixed with stool. Question 18 (2 points) Saved Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States? Question 18 options: 1) Receiving blood products. 2) Ingestion of raw shellfish. 3) Drinking municipally sourced tap water drinking water. 4) Exposure to fecally contaminated food. Question 19 (2 points) Saved At which of the following ages in a young child's life is parental anticipatory guidance about using “time out” as a discipline method most helpful? Question 19 options: 1) 12–18 months. 2) 18–24 months. 3) 24–30 months. 4) 30–36 months. Question 20 (2 points) Saved Screening cholesterol levels in children with one or more risk factors begins at what age? Question 20 options: 1) Birth. 2) 2 years. 3) 5 years. 4) 10 years. Question 21 (2 points) Saved The gastric parietal cells produce: Question 21 options: 1) hydrochloric acid. 2) a protective mucosal layer. 3) prostaglandins. 4) prokinetic hormones. Question 22 (2 points) Saved It is considered a developmental “red flag” if a child does not respond to his or her name by 9 months of age. Question 22 options: 1) True 2) False Question 23 (2 points) Saved You are examining an 18-year-old man who is seeking a sports clearance physical examination. You note a mid-systolic murmur that gets louder when he stands. This may represent: Question 23 options: 1) aortic stenosis. 2) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. 3) a physiologic murmur. 4) a Still's murmur. Question 24 (2 points) Saved First-line intervention for anterior epistaxis includes: Question 24 options: 1) nasal packing. 2) application of topical thrombin. 3) firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage. 4) chemical cauterization. Question 25 (2 points) Saved Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely: Question 25 options: 1) a sequela of rheumatic fever. 2) a result of a congenital defect. 3) calcific in nature. 4) found with atrial septal defect. Question 26 (2 points) Saved In caring for a patient with symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux, you prescribe a PPI to: Question 26 options: 1) enhance motility. 2) increase the pH of the stomach. 3) reduce lower esophageal pressure. 4) help limit H. pylori growth. Question 27 (2 points) Saved Usual treatment option for a child with hepatitis A includes: Question 27 options: 1) interferon alpha. 2) ribavirin. 3) acyclovir. 4) supportive care. Question 28 (2 points) Saved A healthy 6–7-month-old infant is able to: Question 28 options: 1) roll from back to stomach. 2) confidently feed self a cracker. 3) reach for an object. 4) crawl on abdomen. Question 29 (2 points) Saved A Still murmur: Question 29 options: 1) is heard in the presence of cardiac pathology. 2) has a humming or vibratory quality. 3) is a reason for denying sports participation clearance. 4) can become louder when the patient is standing. Question 30 (2 points) Saved Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae usually causes: Question 30 options: 1) a diffuse rash. 2) meningitis. 3) pseudomembranous pharyngitis. 4) a gastroenteritis-like illness. Question 31 (2 points) Saved Risk factors for dyslipidemia in children include which of the following? Select all that apply. Question 31 options: 1) Blood pressure at the 70th to 80th percentile for age. 2) Breastfeeding into the toddler years. 3) Family history of lipid abnormalities. 4) Family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Question 32 (2 points) Saved A young child should use a rear-facing car seat until at least age: Question 32 options: 1) 12 months. 2) 18 months. 3) 24 months. 4) 30 months. Question 33 (2 points) Saved An 18-year-old man presents with periumbilical pain, vomiting, and abdominal cramping over the past 48 hours. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and laboratory analysis shows the presence of bandemia and a total WBC of 28,000 mm3. To support the diagnosis of acute appendicitis with suspected appendiceal rupture, you consider obtaining the following abdominal imaging study: Question 33 options: 1) Magnetic resonance image (MRI). 2) Computed tomography (CT) scan. 3) Ultrasound. 4) Flat plate. Question 34 (2 points) Saved Which of the following benchmarks indicate normal development by a healthy child born at term who is now 12 months of age? Select all that apply. Question 34 options: 1) Talking in two-word sentences. 2) Pointing to a desired object. 3) Reaching for a desired object. 4) Walking backward. Question 35 (2 points) Saved Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)? Question 35 options: 1) Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7 to 10 days. 2) Mild midfacial fullness and tenderness. 3) Preauricular lymphadenopathy. 4) Marked eyelid edema