MN 553 Final Exam Questions With Answers 2023/2024 | Latest Graded A+

MN 553 Final Exam Questions With Answers 2023/2024 | Latest Graded A+. An acceptable first-line treatment for peptic ulcer disease with positive H. pylori test is: Question options: Histamine2 receptor antagonists for 4 to 8 weeks Proton pump inhibitor bid for 12 weeks until healing is complete Proton pump inhibitor bid plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for 14 days Proton pump inhibitor bid and levofloxacin for 14 days Question 9 4 / 4 points Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to: Question options: Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses Question 10 4 / 4 points Patients who are prescribed exogenous androgens need to be warned that decreased libido: Question options: Is an unusual side effect of androgens and should be reported to the provider Is treated with increased doses of androgens, so the patient should let the provider know if he is having problems May be a sign of early prostate cancer and he should make an appointment for a prostate screening exam May occur with androgen therapy Question 11 0 / 4 points A woman who is pregnant and has hyperthyroidism is best managed by a specialty team who will most likely treat her with: Question options: Methimazole Propylthiouracil (PTU) Radioactive iodine Nothing, treatment is best delayed until after her pregnancy ends Question 12 4 / 4 points The dosage of Vitamin B12 to initially treat pernicious anemia is: Question options: Nasal cyanocobalamin 1 gram spray in each nostril daily x 1 week then weekly x 1 month Vitamin B12 IM monthly Vitamin B12 1,000 mcg IM daily x 1 week then 1,000 mg IM weekly for a month Oral cobalamin 1,000 mcg daily Question 13 4 / 4 points A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to: Question options: Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment Identify poor metabolizers of tamoxifen Question 14 4 / 4 points Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include: Question options: Heart failure Angina Myocardial infarction Dyslipidemia Question 15 4 / 4 points Developmental variation in renal function has what impact on prescribing for infants and children? Question options: Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than age 6 months. Higher doses of water soluble drugs may need to be prescribed because of increased renal excretion. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not. Question 16 4 / 4 points Allison is an 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes. She is on NPH twice daily and Novolog before meals. She usually walks for 40 minutes each evening as part of her exercise regimen. She is beginning a 30-minute swimming class three times a week at 1 p.m. What is important for her to do with this change in routine? Question options: Delay eating the midday meal until after the swimming class. Increase the morning dose of NPH insulin on days of the swimming class. Adjust the morning insulin injection so that the peak occurs while swimming. Check glucose level before, during, and after swimming. Question 17 4 / 4 points Sophie presents to the clinic with a malodorous vaginal discharge and is confirmed to have Trichomonas infection. Treatment for her would include: Question options: Metronidazole 2 grams PO x 1 dose Topical intravaginal metronidazole daily x 7 days Intravaginal clindamycin daily x 7 days Azithromycin 2 grams PO x 1 dose Question 18 4 / 4 points True contraindications to diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP or Tdap) vaccine include: Question options: Fever up to 104oF (40.5oC) after previous DTaP vaccine Family history of seizures after DTaP vaccine Adolescent pregnancy Anaphylactic reaction with a previous dose Question 19 4 / 4 points Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have: Question options: Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of Prodrug Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs A need for increased dosages of medications Increased elimination of an active drug Question 20 4 / 4 points The role of the NP in the use of herbal medication is to: Question options: Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies Recommend common over-the-counter herbs to patients Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers Question 21 4 / 4 points Vicky, age 56 years, comes to the clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over 2 years for migraines and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her? Question options: Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill her medication. Switch her to a beta blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine. Request she return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines. Question 22 4 / 4 points Ginseng, which is taken to assist with memory, may potentiate: Question options: Aricept Insulin Digoxin Propranolol Question 23 4 / 4 points The most cost-effective treatment for two or three impetigo lesions on the face is: Question options: Mupirocin ointment Retapamulin (Altabax) ointment Topical clindamycin solution Oral amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) Question 24 4 / 4 points The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is: Question options: The second dose of MMR “boosts” the immunity built from the first dose. Two vaccines 1 month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too close together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine. Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR. Question 25 4 / 4 points The first-line therapy for mild-persistent asthma is: Question options: High-dose montelukast Theophylline Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids Long-acting beta-2-agonists Question 26 4 / 4 points The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) prescriber include: Question options: Nurses know more about Pharmacology than other prescribers because they take it both in their basic nursing program and in their APRN program. Nurses care for the patient from a holistic approach and include the patient in decision making regarding their care. APRNs are less likely to prescribe narcotics and other controlled substances. APRNs are able to prescribe independently in all states, whereas a physician’s assistant needs to have a physician supervising their practice. Question 27 4 / 4 points Which the following persons should not have a statin medication ordered? Question options: Someone with 3 first- or second-degree family members with history of muscle issues when started on statins Someone with high lipids, but low BMI Premenopausal woman with recent history of hysterectomy Prediabetic male with known metabolic syndrome Question 28 4 / 4 points Azithromycin dosing requires that the first day’s dosage be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: Question options: Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range