NUR 204/ NUR204 Exam 3 | 100 out of 100 | Questions and Verified Answers | Latest Update | 100% Correct- Fortis College of Nursing.

NUR 204/ NUR204 Exam 3 | 100 out of 100 | Questions and Verified Answers | Latest Update | 100% Correct- Fortis College of Nursing. Question: If a patient has a low number of erythrocytes, or red blood cells, the nurse expects what to be affected? oxygenation and acid-base balance 3 multiple choice options Question: If a patient has a low number of thrombocytes, or platelets, what will be affected? the bloods ability to clot 3 multiple choice options If a patient has an elevated, white blood cell count, the nurse knows this could be a sign of.. infection or inflammation 3 multiple choice options Question: Which protein is responsible for oxygen and carbon dioxide transport? hemoglobin Question: What do platelets do when bleeding occurs? they clump together to form a plug and stop bleeding Question: Where are leukocytes primarily formed? bone marrow Question: Where are T-cells formed? thymus Question: What is the purpose of a blood differential test? measures the percentages of each type of WBC and reveals any abnormal or immature cells Question: What role do neutrophils play in the blood? they are the first defenders against foreign antigens Question: What role do lymphocytes play in the blood? the produce antibodies by creating memory cells Question: What role do monocytes play in the body? they find and destroy germs and eliminate infected cells Question: What role do eosinophils play in the body? protect the body from parasites, allergens, and bacteria. Too many cause inflammation in specific areas of your body Question: What role do basophils play in the body? defend the body from allergens/parasites. work closely with the immune system by releasing enzymes to improve blood flow Question: How long do red blood cells live in the body? 2-3 months Question: Which diagnostic study tests the life of a red blood cell? A1c Question: What are the electrolytes in the blood? sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, chloride, and bicarbonate Question: What is plasma? -fluid portions of blood -transports electrolytes to and from cells -contains nutrients and proteins -transports hormones throughout the body -transports waste products Question: A patient comes into the office for a yearly physical and complains of persistent fatigue over the last several months. What test is likely to be ordered for this patient? CBC to test for anemia Question: What are the different types of blood samples? venous, arterial, and capillary Question: When is an arterial blood sample taken? to determine arterial blood gas levels Question: When is a capillary blood sample taken? glucose, cholesterol levels, clotting times, hgb, and hct Question: What information does a complete blood count (CBC) provide? oxygen and carbon dioxide transport and immune/inflammatory response Question: A patient comes into the ED and the nurse notices several large hematomas. The patient tells the nurse they are taking heparin. What test does the nurse expect to be ordered? PTT/aPTT Question: A new patient comes in for his first visit. When reviewing medications, he tells the nurse that he takes warfarin. What test does the nurse expect to be ordered? PT/INR Question: What education should a nurse provide for a patient taking an anticoagulant? - use a soft bristle toothbrush - use an electric razor -report any new bruising - limit contact sports Question: A patient comes into the ER complaining of shortness of breath and lightheadedness. The nurse observes pallor, tachycardia, and hypotension. When labs come back, the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low. What condition might the nurse suspect? hemorrhage Question: What does mean corpuscular volume (MCV) measure? Average size of red blood cells Question: What does mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) measure? average amount of hgb in an individual RBC Question: What does mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) measure? proportion of an individual erythrocyte occupied by hemoglobin (relative to the size of the erythrocyte) Question: What is fibrinogen used to monitor? bleeding disorders and live disease Question: A patient has a glucose level of 214. What other laboratory test may be ordered? liver function tests - excess glucose is converted to glycogen and stored in the liver Question: What can high levels of BUN indicate? renal dysfunction, dehydration, or high protein diet Question: What can high levels of creatinine indicate? renal dysfunction Question: What can a low GFR indicate? kidney failure Question: A patient is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory values are important to check prior to the test? BUN and creatinine Question: Why is it important to check kidney function tests in older adults? higher risk of medication toxicity Question: What patient teaching can the nurse provide to help maintain normal cholesterol levels? follow a diet low in saturated fat and eat foods high in soluble fiber Question: If a patient presents with suspected renal failure, which tests are important to order? BUN, creatinine, and GFR Question: Before administering medication to a patient, why may the nurse need to check liver function laboratory tests? medication is metabolized in the liver and excreted by the kidney, so need to make sure liver can handle medication Question: If a patient presents with suspected malnutrition, which lab tests does the nurse expect to be ordered? albumin and prealbumin Question: What does ALT monitor? liver disease progression and the effect of hepatotoxic drugs Question: What do ALP levels indicate? Presence of possible liver or bone disease Question: What do AST levels monitor? severity of liver damage or disease Question: What doe elevated levels of GGTP indicate? liver disease Question: A nurse in the ED is reviewing the chart for one of her patients and notices troponin is one of the lab tests that has been ordered. What does this indicate? an MI is suspected or has already occured Question: The nurse knows that troponin is the most commonly ordered test when an MI is suspected. Why? Troponin I & T are found exclusively in cardiac muscle and are released into the bloodstream with MI as early as 4 hrs after damage. Question: A patient presents to the ER with shortness of breath and bilateral edema in their ankles. The nurse notes a diagnosis of heart failure in the patient's chart. What lab value should the nurse expect to be elevated? Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) Question: What vitamin deficiencies can increase homocysteine levels? folate, B6, B12 Question: What test can check for inflammation in the body? CRP Question: When the nurse is teaching a diabetic patient how to check their blood glucose, what is important for them to have the patient do? show they understand by demonstrating how they will check their blood glucose at home Question: A patient has recently been diagnosed with Type II diabetes. What education should the nurse provide? -blood glucose monitoring - medication use - lifestyle changes - importance of keeping appts Question: What does FSBS mean? fasting blood sugar Question: What does ACHS mean? before meals and at bedtime Question: What does hemoglobin A1c meansure? blood glucose levels over a period of 2-3 months Question: A diabetic patient asks the nurse how often they should check their blood glucose at home. What should be the nurse's response? at least 3x daily Question: When obtaining a capillary blood glucose sample, where should the nurse collect the sample from? side of the finger tip Question: What tests are done on urine samples? urinalysis, pregnancy test, drug testing Question: A nurse is performing an occult blood test on a stool sample from a patient. If blood is present, what will the nurse expect to see? filter paper will turn blue Question: What is the purpose of a fecal fat stool test? indicates the inability to digest and absorb fats Question: What do increased levels of urobilinogen in the stool indicate? RBC destruction, like in hemolytic anemia Question: What do decreased levels of urobilinogen in the stool indicate? biliary obstruction or severe liver disease (clay-color stools) Question: If a nurse is collecting a stool sample to test for ova and parasites, what is important to remember? sample must be delivered to lab ASAP while stool is still warm Question: A patient presents to the ED with complaints of persistent abdominal pain and diarrhea after eating at a new restaurant last night. What test will likely be ordered? ova and parasites Question: What are some examples of ova and parasites? roundworm, pinworm, tapeworm, hookworm, and trichinella spiralis Question: What is the purpose of a culture and sensitivity? to identify the pathogen involved in the infection and identify correct antibiotic treatment Question: What are some common specimen sources for culture and sensitivity testing? blood, throat, sputum, stool, urine, wounds Question: What disease is a C&S sputum sample commonly collected for? TB - collect early AM Question: What are x-rays used for? to visualize bones, organs, and soft tissues Question: When is a chest x-ray used? -chest tube placement -central line infusion catheters -pacemakers -pneumonia -TB -Cancer -cardiac enlargement An x-ray of the abdomen can show pictures of what? kidney, ureters, bladder Question: When are x-rays for bones used? fractures, osteoporosis, arthritis, tumors Question: What are contrast studies most commonly used for? GI, GU systems, PE & arteriograms Question: A patient is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast material. What allergies does the nurse need to specifically ask the patient about? iodine and shellfish Question: What is an intravenous pyelogram? contrast x-ray that looks at kidneys, ureter, and bladder Question: Why is a intravenous pyelogram used? helps diagnose kidney stones and abnormalities of the urinary tract Question: A patient is post barium swallow study. What education should the nurse provide the patient? -may experience nausea and constipation - stool may look white for a few days - drink plenty of fluids -may need a mild laxative Question: What is a CT Scan? uses xrays to complete cross-sectional images of an organ. More detail than xray. Can be done with or without use of contrast medium. Question: A patient is scheduled for a contrast study and is taking metformin. What instructions regarding the metformin should the nurse provide the patient? Do not take your metformin for 48 hrs after the procedure (can increase nephrotoxicity) Question: What is commonly given to patients after a contrast study to help flush out the contrast? IV 0.9% normal saline bolus Question: A patient is brought to the ED with symptoms of slurred speech and unilateral weakness. What type of imaging study should be ordered for this patient? CT to determine if patient is having a stroke/what type Question: What is an MRI most commonly used to diagnose? brain pathology and joint visualization Question: How does an MRI work? uses superconducting magnets and radiofrequency waves Question: What does the nurse need to ensure before a patient goes for their MRI? All metal has been removed and they do not have any metal in their body Question: What is a PET scan? nuclear study performed after injection of radioactive chemicals given via IV. The radioactive chemicals are metabolized by organs creating color-coded images. The more metabolism, the redder the hue "hot spots" Question: When is a PET scan used? to study brain and heart and oncologic pathologic issues Question: When is an ECG used? -screening tool prior to surgery -monitoring anesthesia or conscious sedation -exercise stress testing -signs / symptoms of cardiac disease -irregular heartbeat Question: T or F: Performing an ECG can be delegated to a UAP T Question: What is endoscopy used for? to visualize internal organs, identify tumors, growth or inflammation, biopsy Question: T or F: general anesthesia is used with endoscopic procedures F, conscious IV sedation is used Question: What education does the nurse provide the patient prior to an endoscopic procedure? -NPO after midnight -prep for colo -clear liquids Question: Post-endoscopic procedure, what does the nurse need to remember? -have O2 ready -check to see if patient can be aroused -did they have too much sedation? -can they go home the same day? Question: What is an ultrasound used for? provides direct visualization of soft tissues organs by recording and measuring ultrasonic waves. (e.g. muscles, tendons, appendix, gallbladder, fetus, tumors, aorta, kidney stones, spleen) Question: When is a venous duplex scan done? Done to determine blockage in blood flow such as a blood clot that can present as pain or swelling of the extremity. Test performed in the vascular lab with ultrasound and takes 45 minutes or so. No pre or post procedure care require Question: What education does the nurse need to provide the patient prior to an ultrasound? there is likely no prep, but certain procedures ask for a full bladder Question: What is a paracentesis used for? removing ascites fluid from the peritoneal cavity Question: T or F: needle aspirations and biopsies are clean procedures false, they are sterile procedures Question: What is a thoracentesis used for? removes fluid from the pleural space Question: What is fine needle aspiration used for? to obtain samples with minimal trauma to the underlying organ or structure Question: What other diagnostic test is used to help guide FNA? ultrasound Question: When biopsies are obtained via fine needle aspiration, what does the nurse need to do with the specimen? -label -time collected -bring to lab STAT Question: How long do patient's need to stay flat after a lumbar puncture? 4-8 hours Question: When a patient is receiving a lumbar puncture, what signs and symptoms does the nurse need to watch for? -change in color -RR -headache -pain Question: What is the job of the nurse when a patient receives a punch biopsy? bandage biopsy site Question: What are the assessment steps for procedures? -pre-procedure assessment -collect basic health history -check facility's procedure policies and care specific to each test -home instructions Question: What does the pre-procedure assessment involve? •ID the patient, •Review medical history, •Review allergies, •Consent form, •Assess vitals, •medications, •NPO (when appropriate), •Preparations (e.g. laxatives, cathartics), •IV access, pre-procedure medications) What is hemoconcentration? high concentration of RBC to plasma. May occur if tourniquet is left on for too long What is hemolysis? breakdown of RBCs and resulting release of hemoglobin which can occur if needle is too small of blood comes out forcefully T or F: collecting a urine sample can be delegated to UAP T When is a random clean voided urine sample ordered? random urinalysis or drug testing when Is a clean catch specimen required? when urine is cultured and examined for bacteria sterile container is used The nurse is collecting a urine sample from a foley catheter. What steps should the nurse take? clamp the catheter high, wait for urine, take sample What is the minimum amount of urine needed for specimen collection? 10 mL What instructions does the nurse provide to a female patient collecting a clean catch urine sample? -wipe front to back 3 times with three separate wipes -holding labia apart, pee into the toilet first -then, without stopping the flow of urine, pee into the specimen cup What instructions does the nurse provide a male patient collecting a clean catch urine sample? -wipe the end of the penis 3 times with 3 different antiseptic wipes -pee into the toilet first -then, without stopping the flow of urine, pee into the specimen cup What considerations for the older adult does the nurse need to take when it comes to urine specimen collection? older adults may have difficultly controlling the stream of urine and older women with arthritis may have difficulty holding the labia apart If patient is collecting a 24 hour urine specimen at home, what education does the nurse need to provide? -discard first void of the day -must collect all urine over 24 hr period -may want to stay home or only make short trips What can the UAP help with when it comes to 24 hr urine collection? UAP can collect and label, but cannot assess or educate What are the steps to collecting urine from a foley catheter? *Apply clean gloves *Clamp the drainage tubing at least 8cm (3in) below the sampling port for about 30 minutes *Wipe with alcohol wipe the area where the needle/leur-lock syringe will be inserted *Insert the needle at 30-45 degree angle to facilitate self-sealing rubber. Leur-lock syringe is inserted at a 90 degree angle into the needleless port *Unclamp the catheter *Withdraw required amount of urine T or F: Stool sample collection requires sterile technique F, requires medical asepsis or clean technique Which stool studies only require a small amount of stool? hemoccult and cultured specimens When obtaining a sample for ova and parasites stool testing, what is important for the nurse to remember? collect a large sample from different areas f the stool A patient needs to collect a stool sample. What instructions should the nurse provide? *Defecate in a clean bedpan/commode/toilet hat *Void prior to the specimen collection *Do not place toilet tissue in the bedpan *Specimens must be sent to the lab immediately What does the nurse need to consider when it comes to older adults and collecting stool samples they may need assistance, especially with serial stool specimens When is a sputum sample usually ordered? when an infectious disease is suspected Where is sputum collected from? sputum found in lungs, bronchial tubes, and trachea What is the process of collecting a sputum specimen? Offer mouth care so that specimen will not be contaminated with microorganisms from the mouth Ask the client to breathe deeply and then cough up 1-2 teaspoons (4-10mL) of sputum Wear gloves and PPE to avoid direct contact with the sputum special precautions if TB suspected Ask the client to expectorate the sputum into the specimen container Following sputum collection offer mouthwash to remove any unpleasant taste Document the collection and include amount, color, consistency, presence of hemoptysis, odor, and any discomfort experienced by a client How is a throat culture specimen collected? Depress the tongue and use a light to see interior of the mouth and throat Run the swab over reddened or draining areas Procedure may cause gagging What does the nurse need to document when obtaining a throat culture specimen? any swelling, redness, presence &color of discharge, pustules, pain What are some of the conditions a throat culture is looking for? -Strep -candida (thrush_ -diphtheria -gonorrhea -rheumatic or scarlet fever -pertussis What is a nasopharyngeal swab used to detect? respiratory viruses such as flu, RSV and COVID What are the steps to collecting a nasopharyngeal swab? •Have patient blow their nose beforehand •Wear personal protective equipment - follow facility policy •Swab is inserted into nares parallel with the palate until resistance is met •Rotate swab for several seconds •Place the swab into the culturette tube •Post procedure continue to monitor the patient's vital signs, airway & oxygenation status •Communicate test results promptly to the PCP Where should a wound culture specimen be collected from? center of the wound before collecting a wound culture specimen, what does the nurse need to do? •Remove dressing and irrigate wound with normal saline (NS). Ensure that all drainage is removed •Moisten collection sterile swab with NS solution What are the proteins found in plasma? albumin, globulin, fibrinogen What is the role of albumin? the major plasma protein, primarily responsible for maintaining fluid balance by providing colloidal osmotic pressure in the blood What is the role of fibrinogen? plays an integral part in blood coagulation by converting into fibrin threads in the presence of ionized calcium; essential component of blood clots What is the role of globulins? some function as antibodies, others are responsible for enzymatic functions and transport of lipids, iron, and copper in the blood What information does a complete blood count diagnostic test provide? information about oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capabilities, possible infection or inflammatory response, and status of immune response What tests are included in a CBC? -RBC -Hgb -Hct -MCV -MCH -MCHC -WBC What foods enhance healing? protein and vitamin C What are some food sources of protein? milk, eggs, cheese, fish, meat, and poultry, soybeans, beans, peas, nuts, seeds, fruits, vegetables, bread, bread products What are some food sources of vitamin C? fresh yellow and orange fruits, papaya, kiwi, broccoli, and sweet and white potatoes. What is dysphagia? difficulty swallowing What is one of the biggest risks for someone experiencing dysphagia? aspiration What are some of the causes of dysphagia? obstruction from mass or tumor, stroke, neuro damage, psychological disorders If a nurse suspects a patient has dysphagia, what should be their next step? notify the PCP Who usually diagnoses dysphagia? speech pathologist What type of diet is used for patients with dysphagia? thickened liquids What is a clear liquid diet? anything that is clear or see through. ex. Bouillon, fat-free broth, grape, apple, cranberry juice. fruit drinks, popsickles, gelatin, tea, coffee, ginger ale, lemon-lime soda, supplemental formulas. and HARD CANDY What is a full-liquid diet? Foods liquid at room temperature or that melt at body temperature. includes juices with and without pulp, milk and milk products, yogurt, strained cream soups, and liquid dietary supplements. Full-liquid diets are often ordered for patients who have GI disturbances, dental work performed, or who cannot tolerate solid food when they do not need to be NPO or limited to a clear liquid diet. What is a pureed diet? consist of food that is placed into a blender and made into a pulplike mixture. This type of diet is used for individuals who cannot safely chew or swallow solid food. The addition of raw eggs, nuts, and seeds should be avoided. What is a mechanical soft diet? include food consistencies that have been modified, such as ground meat or soft-cooked foods. They are used for those who have difficulty chewing effectively. What is a thickened liquid diet? used for patients who have difficulty swallowing and are at risk for aspiration. Liquids can be thickened by adding a commercially prepared thickening agent. Nuts, seeds, and other hard or raw foods should be avoided to decrease the risk of aspiration. What is a regular diet? commonly referred to as diet as tolerated. There are no dietary restrictions, but foods should supply patients with a balanced diet of essential nutrients. What is a diabetic diet? prescribed to control the amount of calories by controlling carbohydrate intake. Foods that have a high glycemic index and rapidly raise the body's blood glucose concentration should be avoided. High-fiber complex carbohydrates from vegetables and fruits are preferred to simple carbohydrates, sugars, and starchy foods (such as bread or pie). What is a cardiac diet? They typically consist of low-cholesterol and low-sodium dietary items. Cardiac diets minimize the intake of animal products, which contain cholesterol, and soups and processed foods (such as pickles and lunchmeats), which are high in sodium. Patients with hypertension, high cholesterol, atherosclerosis, chronic kidney disease, or similar diseases may be placed on some type of cardiac (low-cholesterol, low-sodium) diet. What is a renal diet? restrict potassium, sodium, protein, and phosphorus intake. Fresh fruits (except bananas) and vegetables are excellent dietary choices for people on a renal diet. Meats, processed foods, and peanut butter, cheese, nuts, caramels, ice cream, and colas typically are allowed in limited quantities or contraindicated. Why are enteral feeding tubes used? to provide short-term nutritional support for patients who have a functional GI tract but cannot swallow, refuse to eat, or need additional nutrients to meet the body's needs. T or F: NG tubes are used for long-term feedings F, used for short-term feedings When may a patient not be eligible for an NG tube? Patients who have had esophageal cancer or traumatic injury to the nose and mouth When preparing to insert an NG tube, how should the nurse measure the correct length of tubing for the patient? measure the length of tube needed for the patient by placing the tip of the tube at the tip of the patient's nose and extending it to the patient's earlobe and then midway between the xiphoid process and umbilicus. When advancing an NG tube, the nurse notes the tube has reached the nasopharynx, what instruction should they provide the patient? tilt your chin forward and swallow small sips of water through the straw. Once an NG tube is in place, how should the correct placement be verified initially? chest x-ray Once initial NG tube placement has been confirmed by an x-ray, how should the nurse verify placement subsequently? aspirate a small amount of gastric secretions and check the pH to make sure the acidity matches that of the stomach (around 5) The nurse is administering a tube feeding through an NG tube and the patient looks very startled and starts to gag and cough. What should the nurses next step be? stop the feeding, get another x-ray to verify placement What position should a patient be in when they have an NG tube placed for enteral feedings? the head of the bed needs to be elevated at least 30 degrees We have an expert-written solution to this problem! If a patient is unconscious and receiving tube feedings, how should they be positioned? elevated 30 degrees and placed on their left side What lab tests are important to look at when assessing nutrition status? prealbumin, albumin, and transferrin What do decreased levels of prealbumin, albumin, and transferrin indicate? malnutrition What blood tests are commonly used to evaluate cardiovascular health? total cholesterol, triglycerides, LDL, HDL What does a nurse need to educate a patient on prior to having an MRI? -all metal must be removed -you may experience some claustrophobia as the exam will be done in a tunnel-like machine and you will hear some loud noises -depending on anxiety level, some patients may need a sedative What is the therapeutic level for PT when a patient is on anticoagulant therapy? 1.5-2 times the control value What is the therapeutic level for PTTT and aPTT when a patient is on anticoagulant therapy? 1.5 - 2.5 times the control value When administering medications, what requires a 2 person check? medical wastage, insulin administration, blood products What are common uses for intradermal route of administration? often used to administer local anesthetics, to test for allergies, and to test for tuberculosis exposure. What are common injection sites for intradermal administration? inner forearm, upper arm, and scapular area What size syringe is used for an intradermal injection? 1 ml tuberculin syringe with 25-27 gauge needle that is 1/4 to 5/8 inch long What angle should an intradermal injection be administered at? 15 degrees What are the common uses for subcutaneous route of administration? used to administer insulin or heparin What are the sites of administration usually used for subcutaneous injection? abdomen, lateral aspects of the upper arm and thigh, scapular area of the back, and upper ventrodorsal gluteal area What angle should a subcutaneous injection be administered at? if you can pinch at least an inch of skin, 90 degrees, otherwise 45 degrees When administering insulin, what type of syringe must be used? an insulin syringe that measures in units What are the three common IM injection sites? ventrogluteal, vastus lateralis, and deltoid When should a sharps container be changed? when it is 2/3 full, or approaching the fill line. NOT WHEN IT REACHES THE TOP What does ac mean? before meals What does pc mean? after meals What does h or hr mean? hour What does bid mean? twice a day What does tid mean? three times a day What does qid mean? four times a day what does q mean? every what does g or gm mean? gram What does IM mean? intramuscular What does IV mean? intravenous What does PO mean? by mouth What does NPO mean? nothing by mouth What does PRN mean? as needed What does SL mean? sublingual What does STAT mean? immediately What are the six rights of medication administration? -right patient -right drug -right dose -right route -right time -right documentation When are the three checks of med administration done? -when removing the medication from the dispensing unit -when preparing the medication -at bedside immediately before administering What are the components of a medication prescription? -patient's name and DOB -date and time order is written -name of drug -dose of drug -route of administration -frequency -signature of prescriber How is a buccal medication administered? By placing the medication between the cheek and gum How is a sublingual medication administered? Given under the patients tongue until it is completely absorbed. What types of medication cannot be administered through a tube? enteric-coated, time-release, sublingual, and buccal How does a transdermal patch work? a topical preparation designed to deliver medication slowly for systemic effects (e.g., nicotine for smoking cessation, pain medication such as fentanyl, nitroglycerin for angina). Where would a nurse administer ophthalmic medications? in the lower eyelid When administering eye drops, what instructions does the nurse provide the patient? blink several times and nurse maintains slight pressure on inner canthus to prevent med loss When administering ophthalmic ointments, what steps does the nurse need to take? make sure the applicator tip does not touch the eyelid When administering ophthalmic ointments, what instructions does the nurse provide to the patient? close and roll eyes around and inform them their vision may be blurry temporarily What does the nurse need to consider when it comes to medication administration and older adults? Do not rush medication administration. Allow time for understanding of treatment and slower swallowing. • Crushed or liquid forms of medications may be easier to swallow. • Normal aging processes (e.g., decreased renal and hepatic function) may affect the dosage needed because drugs may be metabolized more slowly. Adverse effects may be increased in elderly individuals. • Patients may need instruction on medications to be taken at home. Focus on the name and purpose of the drug; explain that the appearance and color of the medication may vary by manufacturer. • Loss of dexterity and the ability to open pill bottles, visual impairment, and cognitive impairment in the elderly can affect safe medication administration. When administering ear drops, what is important for the nurse to remember to prevent medication loss? massage the tragus after administering drops What is important to remember about suppositories? They must be kept in a cool place until ready to administer as they melt at room temp. When it comes to medication administration, what are some things that a nurse should never do? -recap a needle -leave a medication in a patient's room -administer a medication they didn't draw up -administer an expired medication If a patient receives a medication and begins experiencing abdominal pain or urinary issues, what should the nurse check? liver and kidney function