PN Comprehensive Predictor Exam — 200 Most
Frequently Tested Questions with NGN-Style Items
QUESTIONS WITH BRIEF BUT ACCURATE RATIONALES
UPDATED 2025 REVIEWED BY EXPERTS FROM ATI PN
COMPREHENSIVE EXAMS FROM 2020 UP TO DATE
1. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
B. Change position slowly to prevent dizziness
C. Take with a high-fat meal
D. Stop medication if cough develops
Correct Answer: B. Change position slowly to prevent dizziness
Rationale: Lisinopril can cause orthostatic hypotension; slow position changes help prevent
falls.
Why preferred: Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect on hypertensive meds
and critical for safety.
2. Select all that apply (SATA):
Symptoms of congestive heart failure include:
A. Peripheral edema
,B. Weight loss
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Decreased urine output
E. Hypertension
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: Edema, dyspnea, and reduced urine output are hallmark CHF signs; weight loss is
uncommon.
Why preferred: Early symptom recognition is vital for CHF management, a frequently tested
topic.
3. Match the medication to the nursing action:
Medication Nursing Action
Warfarin Monitor INR
Digoxin Check apical pulse
Metformin Monitor kidney function
Furosemide Check potassium levels
Why preferred: Medication administration and monitoring is core nursing knowledge tested
on exams.
4. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is expected to have:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Low serum ketones
,Correct Answer: C. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Acidosis shifts potassium out of cells, causing hyperkalemia in DKA.
Why preferred: DKA and lab interpretation are high-yield, life-saving knowledge.
5. Drag & Drop: Order wound care steps correctly:
Clean wound with saline
Apply sterile dressing
Remove old dressing
Wash hands
Apply antibiotic ointment
Correct Order: Wash hands → Remove old dressing → Clean wound → Apply ointment →
Apply dressing
Why preferred: Procedure sequencing tests clinical reasoning, emphasized in NGN exams.
6. A nurse teaching use of a metered-dose inhaler should include:
A. Shake inhaler before use
B. Hold breath for 2 seconds after inhaling
C. Inhale quickly and deeply
D. Use mouthwash after each use
Correct Answer: A. Shake inhaler before use
Rationale: Shaking mixes medication; breath should be held ~10 seconds for absorption.
Why preferred: Proper inhaler technique prevents complications; a frequent test item.
, 7. Select all that apply (SATA):
Instructions for client on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole include:
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Avoid sunlight
C. Take with food
D. Limit sodium
E. Monitor blood glucose
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Fluids prevent crystals; photosensitivity common; food decreases GI upset.
Why preferred: Patient teaching on antibiotics is commonly tested for safety.
8. Which lab test monitors warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR measures coagulation status for warfarin effectiveness and safety.
Why preferred: Warfarin management is frequently tested due to bleeding risk.
9. A nurse assesses a client reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. Priority action:
Frequently Tested Questions with NGN-Style Items
QUESTIONS WITH BRIEF BUT ACCURATE RATIONALES
UPDATED 2025 REVIEWED BY EXPERTS FROM ATI PN
COMPREHENSIVE EXAMS FROM 2020 UP TO DATE
1. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Avoid potassium-rich foods
B. Change position slowly to prevent dizziness
C. Take with a high-fat meal
D. Stop medication if cough develops
Correct Answer: B. Change position slowly to prevent dizziness
Rationale: Lisinopril can cause orthostatic hypotension; slow position changes help prevent
falls.
Why preferred: Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect on hypertensive meds
and critical for safety.
2. Select all that apply (SATA):
Symptoms of congestive heart failure include:
A. Peripheral edema
,B. Weight loss
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Decreased urine output
E. Hypertension
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: Edema, dyspnea, and reduced urine output are hallmark CHF signs; weight loss is
uncommon.
Why preferred: Early symptom recognition is vital for CHF management, a frequently tested
topic.
3. Match the medication to the nursing action:
Medication Nursing Action
Warfarin Monitor INR
Digoxin Check apical pulse
Metformin Monitor kidney function
Furosemide Check potassium levels
Why preferred: Medication administration and monitoring is core nursing knowledge tested
on exams.
4. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is expected to have:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Low serum ketones
,Correct Answer: C. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Acidosis shifts potassium out of cells, causing hyperkalemia in DKA.
Why preferred: DKA and lab interpretation are high-yield, life-saving knowledge.
5. Drag & Drop: Order wound care steps correctly:
Clean wound with saline
Apply sterile dressing
Remove old dressing
Wash hands
Apply antibiotic ointment
Correct Order: Wash hands → Remove old dressing → Clean wound → Apply ointment →
Apply dressing
Why preferred: Procedure sequencing tests clinical reasoning, emphasized in NGN exams.
6. A nurse teaching use of a metered-dose inhaler should include:
A. Shake inhaler before use
B. Hold breath for 2 seconds after inhaling
C. Inhale quickly and deeply
D. Use mouthwash after each use
Correct Answer: A. Shake inhaler before use
Rationale: Shaking mixes medication; breath should be held ~10 seconds for absorption.
Why preferred: Proper inhaler technique prevents complications; a frequent test item.
, 7. Select all that apply (SATA):
Instructions for client on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole include:
A. Increase fluid intake
B. Avoid sunlight
C. Take with food
D. Limit sodium
E. Monitor blood glucose
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Fluids prevent crystals; photosensitivity common; food decreases GI upset.
Why preferred: Patient teaching on antibiotics is commonly tested for safety.
8. Which lab test monitors warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum potassium
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR measures coagulation status for warfarin effectiveness and safety.
Why preferred: Warfarin management is frequently tested due to bleeding risk.
9. A nurse assesses a client reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. Priority action:
