NSG 1600 HEALTH ASSESSMENT FINAL
EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025 GALEN COLLEGE OF
NURSING
1. A nurse is assessing a client’s skin turgor. Which site is most
appropriate to use for an older adult?
a) Back of the hand
b) Forearm
c) Abdomen
d) Sternum
Rationale: Older adults often have decreased skin elasticity on the
extremities; the sternum is less affected by age-related changes and
gives a more accurate assessment.
2. The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to auscultate which
sounds?
, a) Lung sounds
b) Vascular bruits
c) Bowel sounds
d) Heart valve clicks
Rationale: The bell is used for low-pitched sounds like bruits and
some heart murmurs.
3. When percussing over the liver, the nurse expects to hear which
sound?
a) Hyperresonance
b) Tympany
c) Flatness
d) Dullness
Rationale: Solid organs like the liver produce a dull sound upon
percussion.
4. A nurse notes a client’s pupils are equal and reactive to light. Which
cranial nerve is intact?
a) II
b) III
c) IV
d) VI
Rationale: Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) controls pupil constriction.
5. Which finding during abdominal assessment should the nurse report
immediately?
, a) Bowel sounds every 5-15 seconds
b) Slight tenderness over the sigmoid colon
c) Tympany over the stomach
d) Absent bowel sounds for 5 minutes
Rationale: Absent bowel sounds may indicate paralytic ileus or
obstruction.
6. The nurse is testing for tactile fremitus. What does increased fremitus
suggest?
a) Normal finding
b) Pneumothorax
c) Consolidation, such as pneumonia
d) Pleural effusion
Rationale: Consolidation increases vibration transmission, increasing
fremitus.
7. When performing a Snellen test, the client reads the 20/40 line. This
means:
a) Client has perfect vision
b) Client sees at 20 feet what a normal person sees at 40 feet
c) Client sees better than normal
d) Client needs no further testing
Rationale: 20/40 indicates the client’s vision is worse than normal.
8. Which technique is used first in an abdominal assessment?
a) Percussion
, b) Palpation
c) Inspection
d) Auscultation
Rationale: The correct order is inspection, auscultation, percussion,
then palpation.
9. A nurse observes clubbing of the nails. Which condition is associated
with this finding?
a) Anemia
b) Dehydration
c) Chronic hypoxia
d) Hyperthyroidism
Rationale: Clubbing often indicates long-term oxygen deprivation.
10. Which question assesses orientation to time?
a) “What is your name?”
b) “Where are you now?”
c) “What is today’s date?”
d) “Why are you here?”
Rationale: Asking the date assesses orientation to time.
11. A patient has a BMI of 32. How should the nurse interpret this?
a) Normal weight
b) Overweight
c) Obese
EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025 GALEN COLLEGE OF
NURSING
1. A nurse is assessing a client’s skin turgor. Which site is most
appropriate to use for an older adult?
a) Back of the hand
b) Forearm
c) Abdomen
d) Sternum
Rationale: Older adults often have decreased skin elasticity on the
extremities; the sternum is less affected by age-related changes and
gives a more accurate assessment.
2. The nurse uses the bell of the stethoscope to auscultate which
sounds?
, a) Lung sounds
b) Vascular bruits
c) Bowel sounds
d) Heart valve clicks
Rationale: The bell is used for low-pitched sounds like bruits and
some heart murmurs.
3. When percussing over the liver, the nurse expects to hear which
sound?
a) Hyperresonance
b) Tympany
c) Flatness
d) Dullness
Rationale: Solid organs like the liver produce a dull sound upon
percussion.
4. A nurse notes a client’s pupils are equal and reactive to light. Which
cranial nerve is intact?
a) II
b) III
c) IV
d) VI
Rationale: Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) controls pupil constriction.
5. Which finding during abdominal assessment should the nurse report
immediately?
, a) Bowel sounds every 5-15 seconds
b) Slight tenderness over the sigmoid colon
c) Tympany over the stomach
d) Absent bowel sounds for 5 minutes
Rationale: Absent bowel sounds may indicate paralytic ileus or
obstruction.
6. The nurse is testing for tactile fremitus. What does increased fremitus
suggest?
a) Normal finding
b) Pneumothorax
c) Consolidation, such as pneumonia
d) Pleural effusion
Rationale: Consolidation increases vibration transmission, increasing
fremitus.
7. When performing a Snellen test, the client reads the 20/40 line. This
means:
a) Client has perfect vision
b) Client sees at 20 feet what a normal person sees at 40 feet
c) Client sees better than normal
d) Client needs no further testing
Rationale: 20/40 indicates the client’s vision is worse than normal.
8. Which technique is used first in an abdominal assessment?
a) Percussion
, b) Palpation
c) Inspection
d) Auscultation
Rationale: The correct order is inspection, auscultation, percussion,
then palpation.
9. A nurse observes clubbing of the nails. Which condition is associated
with this finding?
a) Anemia
b) Dehydration
c) Chronic hypoxia
d) Hyperthyroidism
Rationale: Clubbing often indicates long-term oxygen deprivation.
10. Which question assesses orientation to time?
a) “What is your name?”
b) “Where are you now?”
c) “What is today’s date?”
d) “Why are you here?”
Rationale: Asking the date assesses orientation to time.
11. A patient has a BMI of 32. How should the nurse interpret this?
a) Normal weight
b) Overweight
c) Obese
