HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
WITH COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!!
A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening
with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side
effect?
A) Change the time of the dose.
B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose.
C) Administer the dose with a snack.
D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose. - ANSWER-C.
Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be
appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while
at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B)
would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum
level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions,
such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate
that the drug is performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
D) Increased serum bilirubin. - ANSWER-B.
Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia
through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing
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, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would
indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect
(D).
A client is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic testing for possible myasthenia
gravis. The nurse prepares for intravenous administration of edrophonium
chloride (Tensilon). What is the expected outcome for this client following
administration of this pharmacologic agent?
A) Progressive difficulty with swallowing.
B) Decreased respiratory effort.
C) Improvement in generalized fatigue.
D) Decreased muscle weakness. - ANSWER-D.
Administration of edrophonium chloride (Tensilon), a cholinergic agent, will
temporarily reduce muscle weakness (D), the most common complaint of newly-
diagnosed clients with myasthenia gravis. This medication is used to diagnose
myasthenia gravis due to its short duration of action. This drug would temporarily
reverse (A and B), not increase these symptoms. (C) is not a typical complaint of
clients with myasthenia gravis, but weakness of specific muscles, especially after
prolonged use, is a common symptom.
Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a
client with which condition?
A) Shock.
B) Asthma.
C) Hypotension.
D) Heart failure - ANSWER-D.
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, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is indicated for short term use in
cardiac decompensation or heart failure (D) related to reduced cardiac
contractility due to organic heart disease or cardiac surgical procedures. Alpha and
beta adrenergic agonists, such as epinephrine and dopamine, are
sympathomimetics used in the treatment of shock (A). Other selective beta-2
adrenergic agonists, such as terbutaline and isoproterenol, are indicated in the
treatment of asthma (B). Although dobutamine improves cardiac output, it is not
used to treat hypotension (C).
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage
nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which
statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to
this client?
A) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can
cause muscle spasms.
B) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
C) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may
be an indication of a serious side effect.
D) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the
effectiveness of the drug. - ANSWER-C.
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially
life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by
the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can
cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the
client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be
delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking
Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related
to the leg pain symptom.
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, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy.
What is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered.
B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWER-B.
Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just
before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time
for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high
dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
A) Loperamide (Imodium).
B) Probanthine (Propantheline).
C) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol).
D) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil). - ANSWER-C.
Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) contains a subsalicylate that increases the
potential for salicylate toxicity when used concurrently with aspirin (acetylsalicylic
acid, another salicylate preparation). (A, B, and D) do not pose the degree of risk
of drug interaction with aspirin as Pepto Bismol would.
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-
year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's
questions because her ears are ringing. What action should the nurse implement?
4|Page
HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM
WITH COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+|BRAND NEW!!
A client receiving albuterol (Proventil) tablets complains of nausea every evening
with her 9 p.m. dose. What action should the nurse take to alleviate this side
effect?
A) Change the time of the dose.
B) Hold the 9 p.m. dose.
C) Administer the dose with a snack.
D) Administer an antiemetic with the dose. - ANSWER-C.
Administering oral doses with food (C) helps minimize GI discomfort. (A) would be
appropriate only if changing the time of the dose corresponds to meal times while
at the same time maintaining an appropriate time interval between doses. (B)
would disrupt the dosing schedule, and could result in a nontherapeutic serum
level of the medication. (D) should not be attempted before other interventions,
such as (C), have been proven ineffective in relieving the nausea.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome should indicate
that the drug is performing as intended?
A) An increase in urine output.
B) Two or three soft stools per day.
C) Watery, diarrhea stools.
D) Increased serum bilirubin. - ANSWER-B.
Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia
through the stool. Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing
1|Page
, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
as intended (B). (A) would be expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would
indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not expected. Lactulose does not affect
(D).
A client is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic testing for possible myasthenia
gravis. The nurse prepares for intravenous administration of edrophonium
chloride (Tensilon). What is the expected outcome for this client following
administration of this pharmacologic agent?
A) Progressive difficulty with swallowing.
B) Decreased respiratory effort.
C) Improvement in generalized fatigue.
D) Decreased muscle weakness. - ANSWER-D.
Administration of edrophonium chloride (Tensilon), a cholinergic agent, will
temporarily reduce muscle weakness (D), the most common complaint of newly-
diagnosed clients with myasthenia gravis. This medication is used to diagnose
myasthenia gravis due to its short duration of action. This drug would temporarily
reverse (A and B), not increase these symptoms. (C) is not a typical complaint of
clients with myasthenia gravis, but weakness of specific muscles, especially after
prolonged use, is a common symptom.
Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a
client with which condition?
A) Shock.
B) Asthma.
C) Hypotension.
D) Heart failure - ANSWER-D.
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, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that is indicated for short term use in
cardiac decompensation or heart failure (D) related to reduced cardiac
contractility due to organic heart disease or cardiac surgical procedures. Alpha and
beta adrenergic agonists, such as epinephrine and dopamine, are
sympathomimetics used in the treatment of shock (A). Other selective beta-2
adrenergic agonists, such as terbutaline and isoproterenol, are indicated in the
treatment of asthma (B). Although dobutamine improves cardiac output, it is not
used to treat hypotension (C).
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor) one month ago calls the triage
nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which
statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to
this client?
A) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can
cause muscle spasms.
B) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess
hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
C) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may
be an indication of a serious side effect.
D) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the
effectiveness of the drug. - ANSWER-C.
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and weakness, is a serious, and potentially
life-threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be evaluated immediately by
the healthcare provider (C). Although electrolyte imbalances such as (A or B) can
cause muscle spasms in some cases, this is not the likely cause of leg pain in the
client receiving Lipitor, and evaluation by the healthcare provider should not be
delayed for any reason. A low-cholesterol diet is recommended for those taking
Lipitor since the drug is used to lower total cholesterol (D), but diet is not related
to the leg pain symptom.
3|Page
, HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy.
What is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered.
B) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWER-B.
Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is typically just
before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the optimum time
for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high
dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
A) Loperamide (Imodium).
B) Probanthine (Propantheline).
C) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol).
D) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine (Lomotil). - ANSWER-C.
Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto Bismol) contains a subsalicylate that increases the
potential for salicylate toxicity when used concurrently with aspirin (acetylsalicylic
acid, another salicylate preparation). (A, B, and D) do not pose the degree of risk
of drug interaction with aspirin as Pepto Bismol would.
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-
year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's
questions because her ears are ringing. What action should the nurse implement?
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