BSN 315 HESI Pharmacology Exam 2025 | Nightingale College | 250
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Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has been prescribed digoxin. Before
administering the medication, the nurse notes the client’s potassium level is 2.9 mEq/L. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the digoxin as prescribed.
B. Notify the healthcare provider of the potassium level.
C. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods.
D. Document the finding and monitor the client.
Correct Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider of the potassium level.
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ < 3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity due to
increased binding at myocardial receptors. The nurse should first notify the provider before
administering digoxin, which can cause life-threatening arrhythmias if given in the presence of
hypokalemia.
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Question 2
A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a client prescribed warfarin. Which statement by
the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will avoid leafy green vegetables in large amounts.”
B. “I can take aspirin for headaches while on this medication.”
C. “I will go for regular INR blood tests.”
D. “I will wear a medical alert bracelet.”
Correct Answer: B. “I can take aspirin for headaches while on this medication.”
Rationale: Aspirin increases the risk of bleeding when combined with warfarin. Clients on
warfarin should avoid NSAIDs unless specifically directed otherwise. Education should include
avoiding OTC meds that affect clotting.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The
client is scheduled for breakfast at 8:00 AM. At what time should the nurse administer the
insulin?
A. At 7:00 AM
B. At 8:00 AM
C. At 7:30 AM
D. At 8:30 AM
Correct Answer: C. At 7:30 AM
Rationale: Regular insulin has an onset of action of 30 to 60 minutes. Administering it 30
, 3
minutes before a meal ensures optimal glucose control and prevents hypoglycemia related to
timing.
Question 4
A client receiving vancomycin IV reports hearing a ringing in the ears. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider immediately.
C. Slow the infusion rate and continue to monitor.
D. Document the client’s report in the medical record.
Correct Answer: B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider immediately.
Rationale: Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse effect of vancomycin. The nurse
should stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider to prevent further damage to
hearing.
Question 5
A client is prescribed lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which client statement indicates an
understanding of the medication?
A. “I will limit my salt intake to prevent toxicity.”
B. “I need to drink 2–3 liters of water each day.”
C. “I should take this medication on an empty stomach.”
D. “If I experience diarrhea, I can take loperamide.”
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Correct Answer: B. “I need to drink 2–3 liters of water each day.”
Rationale: Adequate hydration is essential to prevent lithium toxicity. Dehydration increases
lithium levels. Clients should maintain consistent salt intake and avoid over-the-counter
antidiarrheals without consulting a provider.
Question 6
A client is prescribed furosemide for hypertension. Which lab value should the nurse monitor
closely during therapy?
A. Serum calcium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum magnesium
D. Serum sodium
Correct Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium loss, increasing the
risk of hypokalemia and related cardiac dysrhythmias. Potassium monitoring is essential during
therapy.
Question 7
A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to a postoperative client. Which of the
following assessments should be completed first?
A. Pain level using a numeric scale
B. Respiratory rate and depth