Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam QBank 2025 |
200 Verified A+ Questions with Answers &
Rationales | Guaranteed NCLEX & ATI Pass
1. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which adverse effect
should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
A. Constipation
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril block the conversion of angiotensin I to
II, but they also increase bradykinin levels, which can result in a persistent dry
cough—a common reason for discontinuation.
2. A nurse administers furosemide IV to a patient with heart failure. What is
the most critical lab value to monitor immediately after administration?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Potassium
C. Creatinine kinase
D. Glucose
Correct Answer: B. Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary potassium loss,
leading to hypokalemia. This may cause cardiac arrhythmias, making potassium
monitoring essential.
,3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Administer another dose of warfarin
B. Increase dietary vitamin K
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Encourage hydration
Correct Answer: C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: An INR over 5 indicates an increased bleeding risk. The safest and
correct action is to withhold the medication and notify the provider immediately.
4. What instruction should the nurse provide to a patient beginning
nitroglycerin sublingual tablets?
A. Place one tablet under the tongue every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3
doses
B. Swallow the tablet whole with water
C. Avoid lying down after taking it
D. Store it in a humid environment
Correct Answer: A. Place one tablet under the tongue every 5 minutes for
a maximum of 3 doses
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is absorbed rapidly. The protocol for chest
pain includes taking 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3 times. Seek medical help if
pain persists after 3 doses.
5. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the expected action of
this medication?
A. Bronchodilation through beta-2 agonist effects
B. Mucolytic action
C. Anti-inflammatory effect
D. Suppression of cough reflex
, Correct Answer: A. Bronchodilation through beta-2 agonist effects
Rationale: Albuterol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth
muscle, causing rapid bronchodilation to relieve acute bronchospasm.
6. A patient on digoxin presents with visual disturbances and bradycardia.
What lab test should be evaluated?
A. Potassium
B. Hematocrit
C. Digoxin level
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: C. Digoxin level
Rationale: Visual changes and bradycardia are signs of digoxin toxicity. Serum
digoxin levels must be checked immediately to determine toxicity and avoid
complications.
7. A nurse educates a client on levothyroxine. Which statement indicates the
need for further teaching?
A. “I’ll take it at bedtime with my iron supplement.”
B. “I’ll take it every morning before breakfast.”
C. “It may take weeks to see improvement.”
D. “I shouldn’t stop taking it abruptly.”
Correct Answer: A. “I’ll take it at bedtime with my iron supplement.”
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning.
Iron and calcium reduce absorption and should be taken at least 4 hours apart.
8. Which medication would be contraindicated in a patient taking isoniazid
and rifampin for tuberculosis?
A. Albuterol
B. Acetaminophen
C. Azithromycin
D. Loratadine
, Correct Answer: B. Acetaminophen
Rationale: Both isoniazid and rifampin are hepatotoxic. Using acetaminophen,
which is also hepatotoxic, increases the risk of liver injury.
9. A nurse is administering morphine IV. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Offer food before administration
B. Reassess pain in 60 minutes
C. Monitor respiratory rate closely
D. Assess bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C. Monitor respiratory rate closely
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. Respiratory rate below
12/min may require withholding the drug or administering naloxone.
10. A client prescribed spironolactone asks about potassium supplements.
What is the best response?
A. “You can take potassium if you feel tired.”
B. “You should avoid potassium supplements unless prescribed.”
C. “Take potassium with food.”
D. “There is no risk of high potassium with this drug.”
Correct Answer: B. “You should avoid potassium supplements unless
prescribed.”
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and may cause
hyperkalemia if combined with potassium supplements.
11. Which adverse effect should the nurse expect when administering
vancomycin IV too quickly?
A. Red man syndrome
B. Seizures
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Ototoxicity
200 Verified A+ Questions with Answers &
Rationales | Guaranteed NCLEX & ATI Pass
1. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which adverse effect
should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
A. Constipation
B. Persistent dry cough
C. Tachycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Persistent dry cough
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril block the conversion of angiotensin I to
II, but they also increase bradykinin levels, which can result in a persistent dry
cough—a common reason for discontinuation.
2. A nurse administers furosemide IV to a patient with heart failure. What is
the most critical lab value to monitor immediately after administration?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Potassium
C. Creatinine kinase
D. Glucose
Correct Answer: B. Potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary potassium loss,
leading to hypokalemia. This may cause cardiac arrhythmias, making potassium
monitoring essential.
,3. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Administer another dose of warfarin
B. Increase dietary vitamin K
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Encourage hydration
Correct Answer: C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: An INR over 5 indicates an increased bleeding risk. The safest and
correct action is to withhold the medication and notify the provider immediately.
4. What instruction should the nurse provide to a patient beginning
nitroglycerin sublingual tablets?
A. Place one tablet under the tongue every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3
doses
B. Swallow the tablet whole with water
C. Avoid lying down after taking it
D. Store it in a humid environment
Correct Answer: A. Place one tablet under the tongue every 5 minutes for
a maximum of 3 doses
Rationale: Sublingual nitroglycerin is absorbed rapidly. The protocol for chest
pain includes taking 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3 times. Seek medical help if
pain persists after 3 doses.
5. A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the expected action of
this medication?
A. Bronchodilation through beta-2 agonist effects
B. Mucolytic action
C. Anti-inflammatory effect
D. Suppression of cough reflex
, Correct Answer: A. Bronchodilation through beta-2 agonist effects
Rationale: Albuterol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth
muscle, causing rapid bronchodilation to relieve acute bronchospasm.
6. A patient on digoxin presents with visual disturbances and bradycardia.
What lab test should be evaluated?
A. Potassium
B. Hematocrit
C. Digoxin level
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: C. Digoxin level
Rationale: Visual changes and bradycardia are signs of digoxin toxicity. Serum
digoxin levels must be checked immediately to determine toxicity and avoid
complications.
7. A nurse educates a client on levothyroxine. Which statement indicates the
need for further teaching?
A. “I’ll take it at bedtime with my iron supplement.”
B. “I’ll take it every morning before breakfast.”
C. “It may take weeks to see improvement.”
D. “I shouldn’t stop taking it abruptly.”
Correct Answer: A. “I’ll take it at bedtime with my iron supplement.”
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning.
Iron and calcium reduce absorption and should be taken at least 4 hours apart.
8. Which medication would be contraindicated in a patient taking isoniazid
and rifampin for tuberculosis?
A. Albuterol
B. Acetaminophen
C. Azithromycin
D. Loratadine
, Correct Answer: B. Acetaminophen
Rationale: Both isoniazid and rifampin are hepatotoxic. Using acetaminophen,
which is also hepatotoxic, increases the risk of liver injury.
9. A nurse is administering morphine IV. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Offer food before administration
B. Reassess pain in 60 minutes
C. Monitor respiratory rate closely
D. Assess bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C. Monitor respiratory rate closely
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression. Respiratory rate below
12/min may require withholding the drug or administering naloxone.
10. A client prescribed spironolactone asks about potassium supplements.
What is the best response?
A. “You can take potassium if you feel tired.”
B. “You should avoid potassium supplements unless prescribed.”
C. “Take potassium with food.”
D. “There is no risk of high potassium with this drug.”
Correct Answer: B. “You should avoid potassium supplements unless
prescribed.”
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and may cause
hyperkalemia if combined with potassium supplements.
11. Which adverse effect should the nurse expect when administering
vancomycin IV too quickly?
A. Red man syndrome
B. Seizures
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Ototoxicity
