West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
1. A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic.
You should:
Select one:
A. start CPR and transport immediately.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will.: B. begin CPR until an AED is
available.
2. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Select one:
A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS
providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as
airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy,
manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by
advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.: B.
noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway
obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
3. Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Select one:
A. check for a pulse
B. allow full chest recoil
C. administer a breath
D. remove your hands from the chest: B. allow full chest recoil
4. Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a fractured sternum.
B. gastric distention.
C. rib fractures.
D. liver laceration.: B. gastric distention.
,West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
5. CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing
her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the
following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which in-
creased blood flow to her heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop
fibrillating, which restored her pulse.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully,
which restored her pulse.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved
chest compression effectiveness.: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and
vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.
6. CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Select one:
A. occurs every 24 months.
B. is delivered by computer.
C. involves hands-on practice.
D. is self-paced and brief.: C. involves hands-on practice.
7. CPR should be initiated when:
Select one:
A. rigor mortis is obvious.
B. signs of putrefaction are present.
C. the carotid pulse is very weak.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.: D. a valid living will is unavailable.
8. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Select one:
A. supine.
B. prone.
C. horizontal.
D. on a firm surface.: B. prone.
9. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Select one:
a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
b.
, West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
c. in patients who are intubated.
d. when the airway is completely obstructed.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.: e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
10. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should
__________.
Select one:
A. leave it in place
B. continue chest compressions
C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side: C. remove it
11. In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused
by:
Select one:
A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B. severe chest trauma.
C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose.: C. respiratory arrest.
12. Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the
jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.: D. carefully perform the
head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
13. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. grasping the throat.
B. acute cyanosis.
C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing.: D. forceful coughing.
14. The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during
active compression-decompression CPR by:
, West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
Select one:
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase
between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic
pressure and improved cardiac filling.
B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward
stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the
ventricles.
C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions,
which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return
to the right side of the heart.
D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which
hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each
compression.: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil
phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic
pressure and improved cardiac filling.
15. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Select one:
A. 30:2
B. 5:1
C. 30:1
D. 3:2: A. 30:2
16. When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.: B. with one or two hands.
17. While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions,
rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.: D. move to the opposite
side of the patient's chest.
1. A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic.
You should:
Select one:
A. start CPR and transport immediately.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will.: B. begin CPR until an AED is
available.
2. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Select one:
A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS
providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as
airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy,
manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by
advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.: B.
noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway
obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
3. Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Select one:
A. check for a pulse
B. allow full chest recoil
C. administer a breath
D. remove your hands from the chest: B. allow full chest recoil
4. Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a fractured sternum.
B. gastric distention.
C. rib fractures.
D. liver laceration.: B. gastric distention.
,West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
5. CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing
her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the
following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which in-
creased blood flow to her heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop
fibrillating, which restored her pulse.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully,
which restored her pulse.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved
chest compression effectiveness.: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and
vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.
6. CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Select one:
A. occurs every 24 months.
B. is delivered by computer.
C. involves hands-on practice.
D. is self-paced and brief.: C. involves hands-on practice.
7. CPR should be initiated when:
Select one:
A. rigor mortis is obvious.
B. signs of putrefaction are present.
C. the carotid pulse is very weak.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.: D. a valid living will is unavailable.
8. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Select one:
A. supine.
B. prone.
C. horizontal.
D. on a firm surface.: B. prone.
9. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Select one:
a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
b.
, West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
c. in patients who are intubated.
d. when the airway is completely obstructed.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.: e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
10. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should
__________.
Select one:
A. leave it in place
B. continue chest compressions
C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side: C. remove it
11. In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused
by:
Select one:
A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B. severe chest trauma.
C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose.: C. respiratory arrest.
12. Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the
jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.: D. carefully perform the
head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
13. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the
following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. grasping the throat.
B. acute cyanosis.
C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing.: D. forceful coughing.
14. The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during
active compression-decompression CPR by:
, West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
Select one:
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase
between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic
pressure and improved cardiac filling.
B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward
stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the
ventricles.
C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions,
which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return
to the right side of the heart.
D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which
hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each
compression.: A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil
phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic
pressure and improved cardiac filling.
15. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Select one:
A. 30:2
B. 5:1
C. 30:1
D. 3:2: A. 30:2
16. When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.: B. with one or two hands.
17. While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions,
rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.: D. move to the opposite
side of the patient's chest.
