NREMT® EMR Exam 2025/2026 – Real
Exam Questions with Answers and
Explanations
Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation (15 Questions)
1. A patient is wheezing and struggling to breathe. What is the most likely cause?
A) Foreign body airway obstruction
B) Asthma
C) Pneumothorax
D) Pulmonary edema
Answer: B
Rationale: Wheezing indicates narrowed airways, commonly caused by asthma due to
bronchoconstriction. Option A (foreign body) causes stridor or complete obstruction.
Option C (pneumothorax) leads to decreased breath sounds, not wheezing. Option D
(pulmonary edema) produces crackles or rales.
2. What is the correct compression depth for adult CPR?
A) 1–1.5 inches
B) 2–2.4 inches
C) 3–3.5 inches
D) 4–4.5 inches
Answer: B
Rationale: Per AHA guidelines, adult CPR compression depth is 2–2.4 inches (5–6 cm)
for effective circulation. Option A is too shallow, reducing effectiveness. Options C and
D are too deep, risking injury.
3. An unresponsive patient is not breathing. What is the first step?
A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway
B) Perform a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
C) Administer oxygen
D) Begin chest compressions
Answer: B
Rationale: Opening the airway with a head-tilt, chin-lift is the first step to ensure a clear
airway. Option A is premature. Option C requires an open airway first. Option D follows
airway and breathing checks.
4. What is the ventilation rate for an adult in respiratory arrest?
A) 6–8 breaths per minute
B) 10–12 breaths per minute
C) 16–20 breaths per minute
D) 24–30 breaths per minute
, Answer: B
Rationale: Ventilation rate for an adult in respiratory arrest is 10–12 breaths per minute
(one every 5–6 seconds) to avoid hyperventilation. Option A is too slow, risking hypoxia.
Options C and D are too fast, causing hyperventilation or barotrauma.
5. What device is used to deliver high-flow oxygen to a conscious patient?
A) Nasal cannula
B) Simple face mask
C) Non-rebreather mask
D) Bag-valve mask
Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask delivers high-flow oxygen (10–15 L/min, up to 90–
100% FiO2) for conscious patients needing maximal oxygen. Option A delivers low-flow
oxygen (1–6 L/min). Option B delivers moderate oxygen (40–60%). Option D is for
ventilating non-breathing patients.
6. A patient has a suspected airway obstruction. What is the first action?
A) Perform abdominal thrusts
B) Check responsiveness
C) Administer oxygen
D) Sweep the mouth
Answer: B
Rationale: Checking responsiveness determines the patient’s status and guides action
(e.g., thrusts for conscious patients, CPR for unconscious). Option A is premature
without assessing consciousness. Option C is secondary. Option D risks pushing debris
further.
7. What is the correct hand position for adult CPR compressions?
A) Upper half of the sternum
B) Center of the chest, lower half of the sternum
C) Left side of the chest
D) Lower abdomen
Answer: B
Rationale: Compressions are performed at the center of the chest, lower half of the
sternum, to compress the heart effectively. Option A is too high, reducing efficacy.
Option C is off-center, ineffective. Option D is incorrect and risks injury.
8. A child is breathing at 30 breaths per minute. What should you do?
A) Begin ventilations
B) Administer oxygen
C) Monitor and reassess
D) Perform CPR
Answer: C
Rationale: A child’s normal respiratory rate is 15–30 breaths per minute. 30 is at the
upper limit, so monitor and reassess for distress. Option A is unnecessary without
respiratory failure. Option B is premature without hypoxia signs. Option D is for cardiac
arrest.
9. What is the purpose of an oropharyngeal airway?
A) Deliver oxygen
B) Prevent tongue obstruction
, C) Suction secretions
D) Protect the trachea
Answer: B
Rationale: An oropharyngeal airway keeps the tongue from blocking the airway in
unresponsive patients. Option A is incorrect (oxygen is delivered via masks). Option C is
for suction catheters. Option D is for advanced airways like endotracheal tubes.
10. A patient with COPD is hypoxic. What oxygen delivery method is best?
A) Nasal cannula at 2–6 L/min
B) Non-rebreather at 15 L/min
C) Bag-valve mask
D) Simple face mask at 8 L/min
Answer: A
Rationale: COPD patients often require low-flow oxygen (nasal cannula, 2–6 L/min) to
avoid suppressing respiratory drive. Option B may deliver too much oxygen. Option C is
for non-breathing patients. Option D provides higher oxygen than needed.
11. What sound indicates a partial airway obstruction?
A) Wheezing
B) Stridor
C) Crackles
D) Rhonchi
Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor, a high-pitched sound, indicates a partial upper airway obstruction.
Option A (wheezing) suggests lower airway issues (e.g., asthma). Option C (crackles)
indicates fluid in lungs. Option D (rhonchi) suggests mucus in larger airways.
12. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR?
A) 15:2
B) 30:2
C) 5:1
D) 10:1
Answer: B
Rationale: AHA guidelines specify a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-
rescuer adult CPR. Option A is for two-rescuer child CPR. Options C and D are not
standard ratios.
13. A patient is gurgling during ventilations. What should you do?
A) Increase ventilation rate
B) Suction the airway
C) Reposition the head
D) Switch to a nasal cannula
Answer: B
Rationale: Gurgling indicates secretions in the airway, requiring suctioning. Option A
risks aspiration. Option C addresses positioning, not secretions. Option D is inappropriate
for ventilations.
14. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
A) 8–12 breaths per minute
B) 12–20 breaths per minute
C) 20–28 breaths per minute
Exam Questions with Answers and
Explanations
Airway, Respiration, and Ventilation (15 Questions)
1. A patient is wheezing and struggling to breathe. What is the most likely cause?
A) Foreign body airway obstruction
B) Asthma
C) Pneumothorax
D) Pulmonary edema
Answer: B
Rationale: Wheezing indicates narrowed airways, commonly caused by asthma due to
bronchoconstriction. Option A (foreign body) causes stridor or complete obstruction.
Option C (pneumothorax) leads to decreased breath sounds, not wheezing. Option D
(pulmonary edema) produces crackles or rales.
2. What is the correct compression depth for adult CPR?
A) 1–1.5 inches
B) 2–2.4 inches
C) 3–3.5 inches
D) 4–4.5 inches
Answer: B
Rationale: Per AHA guidelines, adult CPR compression depth is 2–2.4 inches (5–6 cm)
for effective circulation. Option A is too shallow, reducing effectiveness. Options C and
D are too deep, risking injury.
3. An unresponsive patient is not breathing. What is the first step?
A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway
B) Perform a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
C) Administer oxygen
D) Begin chest compressions
Answer: B
Rationale: Opening the airway with a head-tilt, chin-lift is the first step to ensure a clear
airway. Option A is premature. Option C requires an open airway first. Option D follows
airway and breathing checks.
4. What is the ventilation rate for an adult in respiratory arrest?
A) 6–8 breaths per minute
B) 10–12 breaths per minute
C) 16–20 breaths per minute
D) 24–30 breaths per minute
, Answer: B
Rationale: Ventilation rate for an adult in respiratory arrest is 10–12 breaths per minute
(one every 5–6 seconds) to avoid hyperventilation. Option A is too slow, risking hypoxia.
Options C and D are too fast, causing hyperventilation or barotrauma.
5. What device is used to deliver high-flow oxygen to a conscious patient?
A) Nasal cannula
B) Simple face mask
C) Non-rebreather mask
D) Bag-valve mask
Answer: C
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask delivers high-flow oxygen (10–15 L/min, up to 90–
100% FiO2) for conscious patients needing maximal oxygen. Option A delivers low-flow
oxygen (1–6 L/min). Option B delivers moderate oxygen (40–60%). Option D is for
ventilating non-breathing patients.
6. A patient has a suspected airway obstruction. What is the first action?
A) Perform abdominal thrusts
B) Check responsiveness
C) Administer oxygen
D) Sweep the mouth
Answer: B
Rationale: Checking responsiveness determines the patient’s status and guides action
(e.g., thrusts for conscious patients, CPR for unconscious). Option A is premature
without assessing consciousness. Option C is secondary. Option D risks pushing debris
further.
7. What is the correct hand position for adult CPR compressions?
A) Upper half of the sternum
B) Center of the chest, lower half of the sternum
C) Left side of the chest
D) Lower abdomen
Answer: B
Rationale: Compressions are performed at the center of the chest, lower half of the
sternum, to compress the heart effectively. Option A is too high, reducing efficacy.
Option C is off-center, ineffective. Option D is incorrect and risks injury.
8. A child is breathing at 30 breaths per minute. What should you do?
A) Begin ventilations
B) Administer oxygen
C) Monitor and reassess
D) Perform CPR
Answer: C
Rationale: A child’s normal respiratory rate is 15–30 breaths per minute. 30 is at the
upper limit, so monitor and reassess for distress. Option A is unnecessary without
respiratory failure. Option B is premature without hypoxia signs. Option D is for cardiac
arrest.
9. What is the purpose of an oropharyngeal airway?
A) Deliver oxygen
B) Prevent tongue obstruction
, C) Suction secretions
D) Protect the trachea
Answer: B
Rationale: An oropharyngeal airway keeps the tongue from blocking the airway in
unresponsive patients. Option A is incorrect (oxygen is delivered via masks). Option C is
for suction catheters. Option D is for advanced airways like endotracheal tubes.
10. A patient with COPD is hypoxic. What oxygen delivery method is best?
A) Nasal cannula at 2–6 L/min
B) Non-rebreather at 15 L/min
C) Bag-valve mask
D) Simple face mask at 8 L/min
Answer: A
Rationale: COPD patients often require low-flow oxygen (nasal cannula, 2–6 L/min) to
avoid suppressing respiratory drive. Option B may deliver too much oxygen. Option C is
for non-breathing patients. Option D provides higher oxygen than needed.
11. What sound indicates a partial airway obstruction?
A) Wheezing
B) Stridor
C) Crackles
D) Rhonchi
Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor, a high-pitched sound, indicates a partial upper airway obstruction.
Option A (wheezing) suggests lower airway issues (e.g., asthma). Option C (crackles)
indicates fluid in lungs. Option D (rhonchi) suggests mucus in larger airways.
12. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer adult CPR?
A) 15:2
B) 30:2
C) 5:1
D) 10:1
Answer: B
Rationale: AHA guidelines specify a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-
rescuer adult CPR. Option A is for two-rescuer child CPR. Options C and D are not
standard ratios.
13. A patient is gurgling during ventilations. What should you do?
A) Increase ventilation rate
B) Suction the airway
C) Reposition the head
D) Switch to a nasal cannula
Answer: B
Rationale: Gurgling indicates secretions in the airway, requiring suctioning. Option A
risks aspiration. Option C addresses positioning, not secretions. Option D is inappropriate
for ventilations.
14. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
A) 8–12 breaths per minute
B) 12–20 breaths per minute
C) 20–28 breaths per minute
