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WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
EXAM ACCURATE AND FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE
WITH EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| SURE PASS
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory
infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis external
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media
A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus,
and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess
D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty
swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
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Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8
D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized
anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
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C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty
concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
convincingly.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia.
After a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP
makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause
of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
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D) Postpartum thyroiditis
B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is
the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which
finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin
resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the
patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial glucose
level is:
A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate
D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial
glucose levels.
WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
EXAM ACCURATE AND FREQUENTLY TESTED
QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE
WITH EXPERT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| SURE PASS
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled
hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory
infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis external
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media
A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus,
and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess
D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty
swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
,2|Page
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8
D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized
anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
,3|Page
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty
concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
convincingly.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia.
After a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP
makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause
of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
, 4|Page
D) Postpartum thyroiditis
B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is
the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which
finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin
resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the
patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial glucose
level is:
A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate
D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial
glucose levels.
