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Dermatology study group Exam Questions & Answers 100% Correct!!
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---18June 20242023/2024A+
- A 36-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician due to intense pruritic lesions affecting her ankles and wrists. She reports that this has never happened before. Medical history is significant for prior hospitalization for sepsis secondary to methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in the setting of intravenous drug use. Her only medication is methadone and she does not have any allergies. On physical examination, there are polygonal violaceous papules affecting the ankles ...
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