2023/2025 ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
with NGN:(180 Real Exam Questions) & 100%
Verifi ed Answers
Test Bank: 2023/2025 ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor with NGN
Section 1: Management of Care (Questions 1-30)
1. A nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the
following tasks should the nurse delegate to the AP?
- A. Ambulating a client who is 1 day post-operative following a hip arthroplasty
- B. Administering a tap water enema to a client with constipation
- C. Feeding a client who is at risk for aspiration
- D. Assessing the pain level of a client receiving morphine via PCA
- Answer: A
- Rationale: Delegation is based on stable client condition and the task's predictability.
Ambulating a stable post-op client is within the AP's scope. Administering an enema (B) is
generally not delegated to APs in many jurisdictions; it is a nursing task requiring
assessment. Feeding a client at risk for aspiration (C) requires nursing judgment. Assessing
pain (D) is a nursing responsibility that cannot be delegated.
2. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for new admissions. Which client should be
assigned to a private room?
- A. A client with pneumonia who has a productive cough
- B. A client with heart failure who has a history of Clostridium difficile
- C. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis who is confused
- D. A client with shingles who has active lesions
- Answer: B
- Rationale: A history of *C. diff* indicates the client is likely colonized and requires contact
precautions. A private room is necessary to prevent the spread of spores, which are not
killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. While shingles (D) requires airborne and contact
precautions if disseminated, localized zoster requires contact precautions; however, *C. diff*
is a spore-forming organism that necessitates a private room for strict isolation.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs.
The client's spouse requests that the nurse give the transfusion without the client's
knowledge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask the spouse to leave the room and administer the transfusion
,- B. Contact the facility's ethics committee for a ruling
- C. Respect the client's decision and document the refusal
- D. Explain to the spouse that the client's autonomy must be upheld
- Answer: C
- Rationale: A competent adult client has the right to refuse treatment, even if it is life-
saving. The nurse must respect the client's autonomy and informed refusal. Documenting
the refusal and notifying the provider is the correct legal and ethical action. The spouse's
wishes do not override the client's decision.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who speaks a different language
than the nurse. An interpreter is not immediately available. Which of the following
actions is appropriate?
- A. Use the client's family member as an interpreter to ensure privacy
- B. Speak slowly and loudly to the client to enhance understanding
- C. Use printed materials in the client's language and medical gestures
- D. Wait to provide teaching until a trained medical interpreter is present
- Answer: D
- Rationale: Federal regulations and standards of care require the use of qualified medical
interpreters to ensure accurate communication and confidentiality. Family members may
misinterpret medical terminology or withhold information.
5. A nurse is caring for a client post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery.
Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
- A. The client reports a pain level of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 at the insertion site
- B. The client's foot is cool to the touch with a capillary refill of 5 seconds
- C. The client has a small amount of serosanguineous drainage at the site
- D. The client's heart rate is 88/min with a blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
- Answer: B
- Rationale: This indicates compromised arterial perfusion to the extremity, potentially due
to a hematoma or thrombus. Immediate intervention is required to prevent limb ischemia.
Delayed capillary refill and coolness are signs of circulatory compromise.
6. A nurse is preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The client asks, "Why do I need
to sign this consent form if the doctor already explained everything?" Which of the
following responses is appropriate?
- A. "This form confirms that you understand the risks and benefits of the surgery."
- B. "It is a legal document that protects the hospital from lawsuits."
- C. "It allows the anesthesiologist to administer anesthesia during your surgery."
,- D. "It is a standard form that we need for insurance purposes."
- Answer: A
- Rationale: Informed consent is a process of education, not just a signature. The nurse's role
is to witness the signature and confirm that the client understands the information provided
by the provider. Option A reflects the ethical principle of autonomy.
7. A charge nurse is observing a new graduate nurse perform a sterile dressing change.
Which of the following actions requires intervention?
- A. The nurse sets up the sterile field and places the sterile drape with the plastic side down
- B. The nurse opens the sterile package away from the body and reaches in to grab the
contents
- C. The nurse opens the first flap of a sterile package away from the body
- D. The nurse holds a sterile object with the arm extended away from the body
- Answer: B
- Rationale: Reaching into a sterile package with bare hands after opening it contaminates
the contents. The nurse should open the flaps without touching the inside and then use
sterile gloves or sterile forceps to retrieve the contents.
8. A nurse is triaging clients after a mass casualty incident. Which client should receive
priority care?
- A. A client with a closed femur fracture and a weak pedal pulse
- B. A client with superficial partial-thickness burns on 20% of the body
- C. A client who is unconscious with a patent airway and a respiratory rate of 8/min
- D. A client who is walking and crying, holding a blood-soaked towel to the forehead
- Answer: C
- Rationale: In triage, this client is categorized as emergent (red tag). The respiratory rate of
8/min indicates impending respiratory failure. Airway and breathing take priority. The closed
femur fracture (A) is urgent (yellow) if the pulse is weak but present.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged with a new prescription for warfarin.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. "I will need to have my blood drawn regularly to check my INR."
- B. "I should avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale."
- C. "I can take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches."
- D. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush to brush my teeth."
- Answer: C
, - Rationale: Ibuprofen (NSAID) increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taken
with warfarin. The client should use acetaminophen for pain or headaches. This statement
indicates a misunderstanding of drug interactions.
10. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of
the following precautions should the nurse include?
- A. Contact precautions
- B. Droplet precautions
- C. Airborne precautions
- D. Protective environment
- Answer: C
- Rationale: *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. The
client should be in a negative pressure room, and staff should wear N95 respirators.
11. A nurse is reviewing advance directives with a client. The client states, "I don't want to
be kept on a breathing machine." Which of the following documents should the nurse
anticipate the client completing?
- A. Durable power of attorney for health care
- B. Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
- C. Living will
- D. Health care proxy
- Answer: C
- Rationale: A living will specifies the types of medical treatments a client wishes to receive
or refuse if they become incapacitated. Specifying the refusal of a ventilator aligns with a
living will. A DNR (B) specifically addresses cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
12. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following IV
solutions is compatible for priming the blood tubing?
- A. Lactated Ringer's
- B. 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
- C. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
- D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
- Answer: C
- Rationale: Only 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is compatible with blood products.
Other solutions, such as those containing dextrose or calcium (like Lactated Ringer's), can
cause hemolysis or clotting.
13. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-operative following a thyroidectomy.
Which of the following findings is the priority?
- A. The client reports a sore throat
- B. The client's voice is hoarse
with NGN:(180 Real Exam Questions) & 100%
Verifi ed Answers
Test Bank: 2023/2025 ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor with NGN
Section 1: Management of Care (Questions 1-30)
1. A nurse is preparing to delegate tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the
following tasks should the nurse delegate to the AP?
- A. Ambulating a client who is 1 day post-operative following a hip arthroplasty
- B. Administering a tap water enema to a client with constipation
- C. Feeding a client who is at risk for aspiration
- D. Assessing the pain level of a client receiving morphine via PCA
- Answer: A
- Rationale: Delegation is based on stable client condition and the task's predictability.
Ambulating a stable post-op client is within the AP's scope. Administering an enema (B) is
generally not delegated to APs in many jurisdictions; it is a nursing task requiring
assessment. Feeding a client at risk for aspiration (C) requires nursing judgment. Assessing
pain (D) is a nursing responsibility that cannot be delegated.
2. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for new admissions. Which client should be
assigned to a private room?
- A. A client with pneumonia who has a productive cough
- B. A client with heart failure who has a history of Clostridium difficile
- C. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis who is confused
- D. A client with shingles who has active lesions
- Answer: B
- Rationale: A history of *C. diff* indicates the client is likely colonized and requires contact
precautions. A private room is necessary to prevent the spread of spores, which are not
killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. While shingles (D) requires airborne and contact
precautions if disseminated, localized zoster requires contact precautions; however, *C. diff*
is a spore-forming organism that necessitates a private room for strict isolation.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs.
The client's spouse requests that the nurse give the transfusion without the client's
knowledge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ask the spouse to leave the room and administer the transfusion
,- B. Contact the facility's ethics committee for a ruling
- C. Respect the client's decision and document the refusal
- D. Explain to the spouse that the client's autonomy must be upheld
- Answer: C
- Rationale: A competent adult client has the right to refuse treatment, even if it is life-
saving. The nurse must respect the client's autonomy and informed refusal. Documenting
the refusal and notifying the provider is the correct legal and ethical action. The spouse's
wishes do not override the client's decision.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who speaks a different language
than the nurse. An interpreter is not immediately available. Which of the following
actions is appropriate?
- A. Use the client's family member as an interpreter to ensure privacy
- B. Speak slowly and loudly to the client to enhance understanding
- C. Use printed materials in the client's language and medical gestures
- D. Wait to provide teaching until a trained medical interpreter is present
- Answer: D
- Rationale: Federal regulations and standards of care require the use of qualified medical
interpreters to ensure accurate communication and confidentiality. Family members may
misinterpret medical terminology or withhold information.
5. A nurse is caring for a client post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery.
Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
- A. The client reports a pain level of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10 at the insertion site
- B. The client's foot is cool to the touch with a capillary refill of 5 seconds
- C. The client has a small amount of serosanguineous drainage at the site
- D. The client's heart rate is 88/min with a blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg
- Answer: B
- Rationale: This indicates compromised arterial perfusion to the extremity, potentially due
to a hematoma or thrombus. Immediate intervention is required to prevent limb ischemia.
Delayed capillary refill and coolness are signs of circulatory compromise.
6. A nurse is preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The client asks, "Why do I need
to sign this consent form if the doctor already explained everything?" Which of the
following responses is appropriate?
- A. "This form confirms that you understand the risks and benefits of the surgery."
- B. "It is a legal document that protects the hospital from lawsuits."
- C. "It allows the anesthesiologist to administer anesthesia during your surgery."
,- D. "It is a standard form that we need for insurance purposes."
- Answer: A
- Rationale: Informed consent is a process of education, not just a signature. The nurse's role
is to witness the signature and confirm that the client understands the information provided
by the provider. Option A reflects the ethical principle of autonomy.
7. A charge nurse is observing a new graduate nurse perform a sterile dressing change.
Which of the following actions requires intervention?
- A. The nurse sets up the sterile field and places the sterile drape with the plastic side down
- B. The nurse opens the sterile package away from the body and reaches in to grab the
contents
- C. The nurse opens the first flap of a sterile package away from the body
- D. The nurse holds a sterile object with the arm extended away from the body
- Answer: B
- Rationale: Reaching into a sterile package with bare hands after opening it contaminates
the contents. The nurse should open the flaps without touching the inside and then use
sterile gloves or sterile forceps to retrieve the contents.
8. A nurse is triaging clients after a mass casualty incident. Which client should receive
priority care?
- A. A client with a closed femur fracture and a weak pedal pulse
- B. A client with superficial partial-thickness burns on 20% of the body
- C. A client who is unconscious with a patent airway and a respiratory rate of 8/min
- D. A client who is walking and crying, holding a blood-soaked towel to the forehead
- Answer: C
- Rationale: In triage, this client is categorized as emergent (red tag). The respiratory rate of
8/min indicates impending respiratory failure. Airway and breathing take priority. The closed
femur fracture (A) is urgent (yellow) if the pulse is weak but present.
9. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged with a new prescription for warfarin.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. "I will need to have my blood drawn regularly to check my INR."
- B. "I should avoid eating large amounts of spinach and kale."
- C. "I can take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches."
- D. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush to brush my teeth."
- Answer: C
, - Rationale: Ibuprofen (NSAID) increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taken
with warfarin. The client should use acetaminophen for pain or headaches. This statement
indicates a misunderstanding of drug interactions.
10. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of
the following precautions should the nurse include?
- A. Contact precautions
- B. Droplet precautions
- C. Airborne precautions
- D. Protective environment
- Answer: C
- Rationale: *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. The
client should be in a negative pressure room, and staff should wear N95 respirators.
11. A nurse is reviewing advance directives with a client. The client states, "I don't want to
be kept on a breathing machine." Which of the following documents should the nurse
anticipate the client completing?
- A. Durable power of attorney for health care
- B. Do not resuscitate (DNR) order
- C. Living will
- D. Health care proxy
- Answer: C
- Rationale: A living will specifies the types of medical treatments a client wishes to receive
or refuse if they become incapacitated. Specifying the refusal of a ventilator aligns with a
living will. A DNR (B) specifically addresses cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
12. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following IV
solutions is compatible for priming the blood tubing?
- A. Lactated Ringer's
- B. 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
- C. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
- D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
- Answer: C
- Rationale: Only 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is compatible with blood products.
Other solutions, such as those containing dextrose or calcium (like Lactated Ringer's), can
cause hemolysis or clotting.
13. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-operative following a thyroidectomy.
Which of the following findings is the priority?
- A. The client reports a sore throat
- B. The client's voice is hoarse
