ATI Capstone Comprehensive Review NEWEST
2025- 2026 UPDATE ACTUAL 100 QUESTIONS &
100% CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ (BRAND
NEW!!)
Most Tested Areas Covered: Clinical Judgment, Delegation &
Prioritization, Safety & Infection Control, Pharmacology,
Evidence-Based Practice, Patient Education, Psychosocial
Integrity, Health Promotion & Maintenance.
1. A nurse receives change-of-shift report for four clients. Which client should
the nurse assess first?
A. A client 2 days post-op requesting pain medication
B. A client who reports mild nausea after chemotherapy
C. A client with newly noted confusion and a temperature of 101.5°F
D. A client awaiting discharge instructions
C. A client with newly noted confusion and a temperature of 101.5°F
This client shows signs of acute illness (possible infection or sepsis) and
requires immediate assessment.
2. Which intervention should the nurse delegate to a UAP?
A. Administering oral medication
B. Measuring vital signs for a stable client
C. Performing a neuro assessment
D. Inserting a urinary catheter
B. Measuring vital signs for a stable client
UAPs can perform routine vital signs but not clinical assessments or
medication administration.
,3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most important to monitor?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hypokalemia
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion, risking
hypokalemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with new-onset heart failure. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Crackles in lung bases
C. Weight gain of 1 lb in 24 hours
D. Fatigue with activity
B. Crackles in lung bases
Crackles indicate pulmonary edema and potential acute decompensation.
5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which lab result
should the nurse review first?
A. Serum glucose 550 mg/dL
B. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Blood pH 7.25
D. Hematocrit 45%
B. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
Hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias and requires
immediate correction before insulin therapy.
6. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value indicates effectiveness of
therapy?
A. aPTT 25 sec
B. INR 2.5
C. Platelets 180,000/mm³
, D. PT 10 sec
B. INR 2.5
INR measures the effectiveness of warfarin; therapeutic range is usually 2–
3.
7. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client 24 hr post-op with pain 4/10
B. A client with a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. A client with sudden shortness of breath and oxygen saturation 88%
D. A client requesting a bedtime snack
C. A client with sudden shortness of breath and oxygen saturation 88%
Acute respiratory compromise requires immediate intervention.
8. A nurse receives four prescriptions. Which should be clarified before
administration?
A. Acetaminophen 500 mg PO q6h PRN pain
B. Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily
C. Metoprolol 50 mg PO BID
D. Morphine 5 mg IV q4h PRN, last dose given 1 hr ago
D. Morphine 5 mg IV q4h PRN, last dose given 1 hr ago
IV morphine should not be given within 4 hours of the last dose unless
specifically ordered.
9. Which action is the most appropriate when a client develops ventricular
tachycardia without a pulse?
A. Administer amiodarone
B. Perform defibrillation
C. Apply oxygen
D. Call the healthcare provider
B. Perform defibrillation
Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation per
ACLS guidelines.
10.A client with pneumonia has an SpO₂ of 88%. Which is the priority
intervention?
2025- 2026 UPDATE ACTUAL 100 QUESTIONS &
100% CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+ (BRAND
NEW!!)
Most Tested Areas Covered: Clinical Judgment, Delegation &
Prioritization, Safety & Infection Control, Pharmacology,
Evidence-Based Practice, Patient Education, Psychosocial
Integrity, Health Promotion & Maintenance.
1. A nurse receives change-of-shift report for four clients. Which client should
the nurse assess first?
A. A client 2 days post-op requesting pain medication
B. A client who reports mild nausea after chemotherapy
C. A client with newly noted confusion and a temperature of 101.5°F
D. A client awaiting discharge instructions
C. A client with newly noted confusion and a temperature of 101.5°F
This client shows signs of acute illness (possible infection or sepsis) and
requires immediate assessment.
2. Which intervention should the nurse delegate to a UAP?
A. Administering oral medication
B. Measuring vital signs for a stable client
C. Performing a neuro assessment
D. Inserting a urinary catheter
B. Measuring vital signs for a stable client
UAPs can perform routine vital signs but not clinical assessments or
medication administration.
,3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed furosemide. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most important to monitor?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
B. Hypokalemia
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion, risking
hypokalemia.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with new-onset heart failure. Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Crackles in lung bases
C. Weight gain of 1 lb in 24 hours
D. Fatigue with activity
B. Crackles in lung bases
Crackles indicate pulmonary edema and potential acute decompensation.
5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which lab result
should the nurse review first?
A. Serum glucose 550 mg/dL
B. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C. Blood pH 7.25
D. Hematocrit 45%
B. Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
Hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias and requires
immediate correction before insulin therapy.
6. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value indicates effectiveness of
therapy?
A. aPTT 25 sec
B. INR 2.5
C. Platelets 180,000/mm³
, D. PT 10 sec
B. INR 2.5
INR measures the effectiveness of warfarin; therapeutic range is usually 2–
3.
7. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client 24 hr post-op with pain 4/10
B. A client with a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL
C. A client with sudden shortness of breath and oxygen saturation 88%
D. A client requesting a bedtime snack
C. A client with sudden shortness of breath and oxygen saturation 88%
Acute respiratory compromise requires immediate intervention.
8. A nurse receives four prescriptions. Which should be clarified before
administration?
A. Acetaminophen 500 mg PO q6h PRN pain
B. Digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily
C. Metoprolol 50 mg PO BID
D. Morphine 5 mg IV q4h PRN, last dose given 1 hr ago
D. Morphine 5 mg IV q4h PRN, last dose given 1 hr ago
IV morphine should not be given within 4 hours of the last dose unless
specifically ordered.
9. Which action is the most appropriate when a client develops ventricular
tachycardia without a pulse?
A. Administer amiodarone
B. Perform defibrillation
C. Apply oxygen
D. Call the healthcare provider
B. Perform defibrillation
Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation per
ACLS guidelines.
10.A client with pneumonia has an SpO₂ of 88%. Which is the priority
intervention?
