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PCCN TEST BANK 2026: 200 HIGH-YIELD QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED PASS!!

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PASS YOUR PCCN CERTIFICATION IN 2026 – GUARANTEED! *100% VERIFIED ANSWERS – GRADED A+* *250+ PRACTICE QUESTIONS – FULL TEST BANK* DETAILED RATIONALES – LEARN WHY EACH ANSWER IS CORRECT This is the PCCN Test Bank 2026 – a comprehensive practice question bank with over 250 questions and answers covering every domain of the AACN Progressive Care Certified Nurse exam. The most complete test bank available – perfect for simulating the real exam. Here's exactly what you get (250+ Q&As with rationales): Cardiology – STEMI vs NSTEMI (biomarker elevation differentiates), anterior MI (V2-V4 ST elevation), inferior MI (II, III, aVF), right coronary artery occlusion (AV node → Mobitz I), left anterior descending (anterior wall, V3-V4), Beck's triad (tamponade: hypotension, JVD, muffled sounds), S3 (fluid overload), S4 (stiff ventricle), cardiogenic shock (decreased CI, increased preload/afterload) Hemodynamics & Shock – BP = SVR × CO, cardiogenic shock (decreased CO, increased preload/afterload), septic shock (decreased preload, decreased afterload, increased CO), neurogenic shock (bradycardia + hypotension), hypovolemic shock (tachycardia, hypotension, oliguria), anaphylaxis (histamine release → bronchospasm, vasodilation, third spacing) Respiratory & ABGs – ARDS (refractory hypoxemia, P/F ratio, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema), respiratory acidosis (pH 7.35, PaCO2 45), respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.45, PaCO2 35), oxygen toxicity (50% FiO2 for 24 hrs), PEEP (reduces cardiac output, allows lower FiO2), thoracentesis (patient upright, bent forward) Pharmacology – Diltiazem (coronary vasodilator + SVT treatment), Epinephrine (pulseless arrest – shunts blood to heart/brain), Adenosine (SVT – rapid IV push, may cause sinus pause), ACE inhibitors (swelling of tongue/face = serious side effect), Beta blockers (prevent AAA rupture), Haloperidol (acute delirium drug of choice), Lorazepam (alcohol withdrawal first-line), Kayexalate (removes potassium in hyperkalemia), Cryoprecipitate (fibrinogen, factors VIII, XIII – for DIC/hemophilia A) Endocrine & Electrolytes – DKA (hyperkalemia initially, then hypokalemia after insulin), HHS (osmotic diuresis from hyperglycemia, hypokalemia initially), metabolic alkalosis (pH 7.45, normal CO2, low K+), Cushing's triad (increased ICP: elevated SBP, decreased DBP, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia) Neurology – Cushing's triad, herniation signs, global aphasia (difficulty understanding gestures/pictures – Broca's = can understand but can't produce, Wernicke's = can't understand but can gesture), Alzheimer's first sign (short-term memory loss), seizure first-line (lorazepam), stroke complication prevention (aspiration precautions FIRST) Ethics & Legal – Negligence claims (often from ineffective communication), HIPAA (privacy of health information), Durable power of attorney (medical decisions for incompetent patient), Informed consent (asking patient to explain procedure ensures understanding), Elder abuse suspicion (report up chain of command, notify charge nurse), Medication error (tell patient, chart it, notify physician) Hematology – DIC (widespread clotting that triggers bleeding – PT/PTT prolonged, platelets decreased, fibrinogen decreased, D-dimer elevated), HIT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia – drop in platelets + thrombosis), ITP (autoimmune attack on platelets), Anemia most common (iron deficiency) GI & Renal – Upper GI bleeding most common (85%), Esophageal varices (portal hypertension from cirrhosis), C. difficile (diarrhea 3+ days, foul stool, abdominal pain), Acute pancreatitis (hypocalcemia, glucose elevated), GFR (125 mL/min, 180 L/day), BUN (reflects hydration, catabolism, blood in gut) Professional Nursing – AACN Synergy Model (Clinical Inquiry, Advocacy, Caring Practices), Family needs during critical illness (to be kept informed – #1 reason for lawsuits is lack of communication), Kinesthetic learners (learn by handling equipment), Patient education at 3rd grade level, Conflict resolution (initiate at initial emergence) Updated for 2026 AACN blueprint – includes SSRI indications (depression), herbal preparations (ginseng → monitor for bleeding), homeopathic treatments (obtain more information first), and metabolic syndrome criteria. Complete test bank. Simulate the real exam. Pass with confidence.

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PCCN TEST BANK 2026: 200 HIGH-YIELD QUESTIONS
AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS | GRADED A+ |
GUARANTEED PASS!!



A 45-year old woman is admitted with type 1 diabetic mellitus. She is
hyperventilating, has signs of dehydration (increased urine output and increased
thirst), and is tachycardic. Initial treatment would include:
A. Diazoxide (Hyperstat) to inhibit the release of insulin
B. glucose for hypoglycemia
C. insulin therapy for ketoacidosis, fluid and electrolyte replacement
D. intravenous fluids for dehydration and glucose for hypoglycemia
- answer-C. insulin therapy for ketoacidosis, fluid and electrolyte replacement
The patient is exhibiting the signs and symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
Signs of dehydration, such as polydipsia and polyphagia, are due to large urine
output, increased thirst is secondary to dehydration and tachycardia is due to
sympathetic nervous system stimulation from an increased glucose level and
ketosis. Initial treatment would include insulin therapy, re-hydration with fluids
and electrolyte replacement. Diazoxide would not be used since it inhibits insulin
release (this patient requires insulin to lower glucose). The patient is not
hypoglycemia. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia are similar; tachycardia,
change in behavior (irritability) or level of consciousness, sweating and shaking.

A 45-year-old female with history of bipolar disorder is one-day postoperative
following abdominal surgery. The patient slept only one or two hours during the
night and is speaking rapidly, throwing her belongings at the nurses and insists she
is going to leave the hospital. The nurse should:
A. Notify the mental health crisis team
B. Notify social services
C. Notify the nursing supervisor
D. Notify the patient's husband
- answer-A. Notify the mental health crisis team
In many hospitals, this can be the rapid response team. Not all hospitals have
access to mental health professionals so the rapid response team answers these
calls. The mental health crisis team is comprised of mental health professionals
who can assess the mental status of the patients as well as the medical-surgical
assessment. After the complete assessment is made, the decision of how to treat

,this possible exacerbation of her bipolar disorder may be made. The patient is at
risk for hurting herself and others and may need continuing assessment of mental
and surgical status beyond the rapid response team. Decisions will be made with
the attending physician. Social services may help with placement, but not during
an acute situation. The nursing supervisor may be notified as the rapid response
team is notified; this is a great strategy; however, the supervisor may not have the
ability to assess this complex patient. The supervisor is more able to delegate care
and request more help to the area if needed. The patient's husband will need to be
called after the immediate assessment is made.

A 55 year old male postoperative patient is demonstrating signs of pain;
tachycardia, hypertension, abdominal guarding and increased respiratory rate. The
patient refuses pain medication because he believes he will become addicted to the
narcotics. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Acknowledge that the patient is entitled to refuse pain medications
B. Tell the patient that opioids have a low addiction rate when used for
postoperative pain while in the hospital
C. Admire the patient's stoicism
D. Acknowledge opioid addiction potential, and offer a back rub
- answer-B. Tell the patient that opioids have a low addiction rate when used for
postoperative pain while in the hospital
Many people are concerned about addiction rates of narcotics; however, the use of
narcotics for postoperative pain while in the hospital has a very low addiction rate.
The risk for abuse increases when patients go home with narcotics. Explaining to
the patient that limited use in the hospital will increase his recovery and reduce
inflammation is the correct response. Any patient may refuse medications after an
explanation of the facts are given. A back rub or alternative care is a way to treat
the patient if they absolutely refuse medications; however, the best answer is to
correct the patient's misinformation about the use of narcotics during the
immediate postoperative period.

A 55-year old male is admitted from the ICU after an acute Type III aortic
dissection. Treatment plan includes blood pressure control. What medications
would the nurse anticipate in this patient?
A. digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix)
B. metoprolol (Lopressor) and lisinopril (Prinivil)
C. furosemide and spironolactone (Aldactone)
D. bumetanide (Bumex) and amlodipine (Norvasc)
- answer-B. metoprolol (Lopressor) and lisinopril (Prinivil)

,The blood pressure control of this patient is the most important treatment in his
care. The two most common drugs for the treatment of an aortic dissection are a
beta blocker and ACE inhibitor. Diuretics may be added for more control of blood
pressure, but are not first-line drugs. Digoxin is not required for this patient.

A 68 year old male is 4 hours postoperative after percutaneous transluminal
coronary angioplasty and stent placement and complains of flank pain. He is
restless, tachycardic, hypotensive, and his hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
(H+H) have dropped. Which of the following nursing actions is correct?
A. Keep the head of the bed flat and apply pressure at the sheath site to stop
bleeding.
B. Notify a physician immediately and anticipate ultrasound-guided compression
and possible surgery to stop the bleeding.
C. Notify a physician immediately, and anticipate anticoagulation or thrombolytic
therapy.
D. Notify a physician immediately, stop anticoagulation therapy, and anticipate the
need for intravenous fluid and/or blood
- answer-D. Notify a physician immediately, stop anticoagulation therapy, and
anticipate the need for intravenous fluid and/or blood
This angioplasty and stent patient is probably experiencing a retroperitoneal
arterial bleed into the flank area, requiring cessation of anticoagulants and
preparation for fluid administration and/or blood. Lying the patient flat and
applying pressure to the sheath site treats the bleeding or hematoma at the sheath
site. Ultrasound-guided compression and surgery is indicated if a pulsatile mass or
bruit occurs near the insertion site, indicating pseudoaneurysm or arteriovenous
fistula formation. Anticoagulation therapy is indicated for decreased circulation in
extrremity related to thrombus or embolus.

A 70 year old female presents in cardiogenic shock secondary to myocardial
infarction. Which of the following symptoms are consistent with cardiogenic
shock?
A. hypertension with systolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg, bradycardia,
chest pain and tachypnea
B. hypotension with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg, tachycardia,
dysrhythmias and tachypnea
C. hypotension with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg, dysrhythmias and
slow, labored breathing
D. hypotension with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg, bradycardia and
slow, labored breathing

, - answer-B. hypotension with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg,
tachycardia, dysrhythmias and tachypnea
Cardiogenic shock presents with low cardiac output syndrome: tachycardia, low
systolic pressure, elevated diastolic pressure (decreased pulse pressure), tachypnea
due to tissue hypoxia, and dysrhythmias due to myocardial ischemia. Hypertension
does not fit with low cardiac output syndrome, nor does slow labored breathing.

A complete assessment of a patient with a wound includes which of the following:
A. a detailed description of the wound and vascular assessment
B. a nutrition assessment
C. laboratory findings, including hematology, microbiology and chemistries
D. all of the above
- answer-D. all of the above
Accurate wound assessment on admission includes: detailed description of the
wound, including wound location, length, width, depth and the presence and
position of undermining, presence of cellulitis and drainage. Calculation of wound
area of volume should be performed and documented at each patient visit. A
nutrition assessment is key. Vascular assessment is also essential, especially if a
patient presents with a chronic wound. A thorough vascular exam should be
performed, including palpation of radial, femoral and pedal pulses. Signs of arterial
obstruction include lack of peripheral pulses with poor capillary refill, think
atrophic skin and hypertrophic deformed nails. Laboratory assessment to include
hematology, complete blood count and differential, chemistries including
metabolic panel, liver function tests, albumin, prealbumin, hemoglobin A1C, and
microbiology, including previous cultures and pathology.

A family-centered approach to patient care recognizes that families:
A. may be harmful to patient's recovery
B. should be allowed to visit the patient anytime
C. are team members in the patient's healing process
D. should be included in all decisions about patient care
- answer-C. are team members in the patient's healing process
Family-centered care is a philosophy that includes families as team members in the
care of the patient. The patient remains the center of the staff's efforts. Family
involvement has been shown to be beneficial, not harmful. Open visiting hours are
common in the ICU; however, there may be times that the patient needs privacy,
quiet and rest. Family members do not have to be included in all decisions if the
patient is awake and able to make decisions.

A hallmark of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is:

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