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Evolve HESI Comprehensive Exam 1 2025: Practice Questions & Answers

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Pass your 2025 Evolve HESI Comprehensive Exam 1. Get verified practice questions, detailed rationales, and correct answers for nursing school exit exams and NCLEX-RN preparation.

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Page 1 of 96




EVOLVE COMPREHENSIVE EXAM (HESI) 1 EXAM

QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH WELL-

ELABORATED RATIONALES / EVOLVE MED SURG HESI

LATEST EXAM 2025(BRAND NEW!!)

A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood

pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse

anticipate the client to receive that is at least likely to

exacerbate asthma? ......ANSWER........Metoprolol Tartrate(

Lopressor)

The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is

metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a beta2 blocking agent which is also

cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction.

Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction

and increase asthmatic symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a

beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive agent

,Page 2 of 96




used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for

bronchoconstriction due to its nonselective beta blocker action.

Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs,

causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with

asthma and other obstructive pulmonary disorders.

A male client who has been taking propranolol ( inderal) for 18

months tells the nurse the healthcare provider discontinued the

medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the

past three months. Which instruction should the use provide?

......ANSWER........Ask the health care provider about tapering

the drug dose over the next week.

Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol,

measures to prevent rebound cardiac excitation, such as

progressively reducing the dose over one to two weeks (C),

should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia,

hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A

,Page 3 of 96




and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia

and rebound hypertension, so gradual weaning should be

recommended.

A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports

drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

......ANSWER........How long has the client been taking the

medication

Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with

clonidine and with continued use becomes less intense, so the

length of time the client has been on the medication (A) provides

information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not

relevant.

The nurse is preparing to admister atropine, an anticholinergic,

to a client who is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client

asks the nurse to explain th reason for the prescribed

medication. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

, Page 4 of 96




......ANSWER........Decrease the risk of bradycardia during

surgery

Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the

automaticity of the sinoatrial node and prevent a dangerous

reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A, C and

D) do not address the therapeutic action of atropine use

perioperatively.

An 80 year old client is given morphine sulphate for

postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the

nurse question that poses a potential development of urniary

retention in this geriatric client. ? ......ANSWER........Tricyclic

antidepressants

Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic

antidepressants (C), can exacerbate urinary retention associated

with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic antidepressants

and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary

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